PMI PMP Scheduling and Dependency Analysis Practice Test

 

Topic 17 covers scheduling and dependency analysis for the PMI Project Management Professional (PMP) certification. These original scenarios apply the July 2026 exam objectives across predictive, agile and hybrid projects. Use the stated constraints to select one answer unless the question specifies otherwise. For broader preparation, visit the PMP Exam Dumps page. Each option has an explanation of its role in the decision.

Question 1

A project starts at elapsed time 0. Activity A takes 3 days; B takes 4 days after A; C takes 7 days after A; D takes 2 days after both B and C. All links are finish-to-start with no lag, and resources are unlimited. What is the earliest project finish?

1. 7 days.
2. 9 days.
3. 16 days.
4. 10 days.
5. 12 days.

Correct Answer: E

 

Correct Answer

Answer E is correct because activity A finishes at time 3, B at 7 and C at 10. D must wait for both predecessors, so it runs from time 10 to 12 on the controlling A-C-D path.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because seven is the duration of the longest individual activity, C. It omits A before C and D after it, both of which are required by the network.

Answer B is incorrect because this is the duration of A-B-D, but D also needs C to finish. The longer A-C branch prevents D from starting at time 7.

Answer C is incorrect because adding all four durations assumes B and C are sequential. The network allows them to run concurrently after A, so only the longer branch controls D.

Answer D is incorrect because this is the finish of C, not the whole project. The required two-day activity D still follows the completion of both incoming branches.

 

Question 2

In an unconstrained schedule with one working calendar, activity E has early start 6, early finish 10, late start 9 and late finish 13, all measured as elapsed working days. What can its total float tell the planner?

1. E can slip by three days without delaying the calculated project finish, if other conditions hold.
2. E has nine days of float because its late start is at time 9.
3. E must finish at time 10 because early finish is a contractual deadline.
4. E can slip by four days because its duration is four days.
5. Every successor can remain at its early start if E uses all three days.

Correct Answer: A

 

Correct Answer

Answer A is correct because total float is LS – ES = 9 – 6 = 3, also LF – EF = 13 – 10 = 3. It protects the project finish under the current network, not necessarily every successor’s early start.

Incorrect Answers

Answer B is incorrect because the late start is an absolute point on the elapsed-time axis. Float is the difference from early start, not the late-start value itself.

Answer C is incorrect because an early finish is a calculated earliest date, not automatically a required deadline. The late finish of 13 demonstrates available flexibility in this network.

Answer D is incorrect because duration measures the time needed to perform E. Float measures scheduling flexibility and comes from the difference between early and late dates, which is three days.

Answer E is incorrect because total float protects the project completion date; free float is needed to assess delay to immediate successors. The provided dates do not establish that all three days are free float.

 

Question 3

Activity M finishes at elapsed time 8. Its only immediate successor can start at time 10, while the network gives M four days of total float. With finish-to-start logic and no lag, M slips by three days. What follows?

1. The successor slips by three days because any predecessor delay transfers in full.
2. The successor’s early start slips by one day, while the project finish can remain unchanged.
3. M becomes three days early relative to its late finish.
4. Neither the successor nor the project can be affected because four days of total float exist.
5. The project must slip by one day because free float is exceeded.

Correct Answer: B

 

Correct Answer

Answer B is correct because activity M has two days of free float, from 8 to 10. A three-day slip uses that allowance and delays the successor by one day, but remains within M’s four days of total float.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because the successor already had a two-day gap after M’s early finish. Only the part of the delay beyond that gap transfers to its earliest start.

Answer C is incorrect because the three-day delay consumes three of four days of total float, leaving one. It does not create three days of additional flexibility.

Answer D is incorrect because total float does not protect every early successor date. The first two days are free float; the third day delays this successor even though project completion can still be protected.

Answer E is incorrect because exceeding free float can delay a successor without delaying project completion. The stated total float still accommodates the three-day slip.

 

Question 4

Two independent paths to the finish each take 20 days. Path P can be shortened by two days without changing path Q. The sponsor expects the project to finish two days earlier if P is shortened. What should the scheduler explain?

1. P remains the only critical path because it was the path selected for intervention.
2. The project remains 20 days with both paths still having zero float.
3. The project remains 20 days because path Q still controls completion.
4. The project finishes in 18 days because any critical-path reduction transfers to the finish.
5. The project finishes in 19 days because the two path reductions are averaged.

Correct Answer: C

 

Correct Answer

Answer C is correct because both paths are currently critical. Shortening only P makes Q the sole controlling path at 20 days; the finish advances only when all remaining controlling paths support an earlier date.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because management attention does not determine criticality. After the reduction, P is 18 days and Q is 20, making Q the controlling path.

Answer B is incorrect because the overall duration remains twenty, but P now takes eighteen and has two days of flexibility relative to Q. Only Q remains controlling after the stated change.

Answer D is incorrect because that would be true only if no other path continued to govern the old finish. Q is explicitly an independent 20-day path and remains unchanged.

Answer E is incorrect because network completion is governed by the longest required path, not the average path length. Averaging 18 and 20 has no scheduling basis here.

 

Question 5

A network has path R of 15 days and path S of 14 days. There are no shared activities or resource constraints. R is shortened by three days. What is the resulting project duration and controlling path?

1. 13 days, controlled equally by R and S.
2. 12 days, because S can use its existing float to match the new R finish.
3. 12 days, controlled by R.
4. 15 days, controlled by the original baseline path R.
5. 14 days, controlled by S.

Correct Answer: E

 

Correct Answer

Answer E is correct because path R becomes 12 days while S remains 14. The longest remaining path determines completion, so the three-day activity reduction produces only a one-day project reduction.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because averaging the new path lengths gives 13, but a project cannot finish before the slower required path. The paths are not equal after the change.

Answer B is incorrect because float permits delay without affecting the current finish; it does not shorten the actual work. S still requires fourteen days and becomes controlling when R is reduced to twelve.

Answer C is incorrect because this ignores S after compression. R’s new duration does not allow the required 14-day path to finish any earlier.

Answer D is incorrect because the baseline preserves the approved comparison, but current calculated criticality can change. The new network durations produce a 14-day forecast.

 

Question 6

On an elapsed working-day scale, configuration activity A starts at time 4 and lasts 8 days. Test preparation B has a start-to-start relationship with A and a lag of 3 days. B lasts 5 days and has no other constraints. What are B’s earliest start and finish?

15. Start 7 and finish 15.
16. Start 15 and finish 20.
17. Start 1 and finish 6.
18. Start 4 and finish 9.
19. Start 7 and finish 12.

Correct Answer: E

 

Correct Answer

Answer E is correct because the start-to-start lag is added to A’s start: 4 + 3 = 7. B then needs five days, so its earliest finish is time 12.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because the start is correct, but the finish uses A’s eight-day duration. B has its own five-day duration, ending at time 12.

Answer B is incorrect because these dates incorrectly apply the lag after A’s finish of 12. That would model a finish-to-start relationship rather than the specified start-to-start link.

Answer C is incorrect because subtracting three days treats the positive lag as a lead. The stated relationship delays B’s start relative to A, rather than allowing it to begin earlier.

Answer D is incorrect because these dates ignore the three-day lag. B cannot start immediately with A because the relationship requires three elapsed working days after A starts.

 

Question 7

Training-material preparation may proceed alongside system configuration. The materials cannot be finalized until configuration finishes because the final screens must be verified. Which dependency most directly expresses this finish restriction?

1. A finish-to-finish link from configuration to material preparation.
2. A start-to-start link with no other relationship.
3. A finish-to-start link from configuration to material preparation.
4. A start-to-finish link from configuration to material preparation.
5. A fixed material finish date unrelated to configuration.

Correct Answer: A

 

Correct Answer

Answer A is correct because this relationship prevents the materials from finishing before configuration finishes while allowing earlier preparation work to overlap. It captures the specified restriction on completion.

Incorrect Answers

Answer B is incorrect because this controls when preparation may start relative to configuration. It does not prevent the materials from finishing before the final screens are available.

Answer C is incorrect because that would prohibit all preparation from starting until configuration is finished. The scenario explicitly allows overlap and restricts only finalization.

Answer D is incorrect because that would tie material completion to the start of configuration, not its finish. The final screens are unavailable at the event this relationship controls.

Answer E is incorrect because a fixed date would not automatically reflect changes in configuration completion. The dependency should preserve the reason that finalization must wait.

 

Question 8

A test lab finishes qualification at the end of Friday. A dependent review needs two full working days and starts on the next available working day. Reviewers work Monday through Friday, but the following Monday is a holiday. When can the review finish at the earliest?

1. At the end of the following Tuesday.
2. At the end of Sunday.
3. At the end of the following Monday by crediting preparation before qualification finishes.
4. At the end of the following Wednesday.
5. At the end of the following Thursday.

Correct Answer: D

 

Correct Answer

Answer D is correct because the next available working day is Tuesday because the weekend and Monday holiday are nonworking. Tuesday and Wednesday provide the two required full days.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because that would count Monday as a working day. The explicit holiday removes Monday from the review calendar, so only one review day has elapsed by Tuesday evening.

Answer B is incorrect because this counts calendar days rather than the reviewers’ working days. Neither Saturday nor Sunday is available for the dependent review.

Answer C is incorrect because the dependent review starts only on the next available working day after qualification, and Monday is a holiday. No earlier review credit is authorized in the scenario.

Answer E is incorrect because this adds an unstated extra delay. Tuesday is available and the review needs only Tuesday and Wednesday under the specified calendar.

 

Question 9

A facility schedule contains two links: pressure testing must follow completed pipe installation for physical reasons; painting is placed after landscaping only because the planner prefers that sequence. Neither link involves a safety rule beyond the stated facts. Which statements are correct? Choose TWO.

1. Both links are mandatory because they are entered in the approved schedule.
2. The landscaping-to-painting link can be reconsidered as a discretionary dependency.
3. The preferred sequence is external because landscaping is a different discipline.
4. The physical link can be removed if the pressure-test crew becomes available earlier.
5. Neither link needs documentation because dependencies are visible in the dates.
6. The installation-to-pressure-test link is mandatory under the stated physical constraint.

Correct Answers: B, F

 

Correct Answers

Answer B is correct because the sequence is based only on planner preference. It may be changed after assessing practical effects, unlike a link imposed by the physical nature of the work.

Answer F is correct because the test cannot verify the completed pipe system before it exists. This technical necessity makes the sequence inherent to the work rather than merely preferred.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because approval does not change the origin of a dependency. A preferred sequence remains discretionary even though changing the baseline may require appropriate control.

Answer C is incorrect because externality concerns dependence on activities outside the project’s control or scope, not simply a different discipline. No such external boundary is given.

Answer D is incorrect because resource availability does not make an uninstalled pipe system testable. The stated technical prerequisite still governs the earliest feasible test.

Answer E is incorrect because dates alone do not explain why work must be sequenced. Recording the logic and rationale supports later changes without accidentally removing necessary relationships.

 

Question 10

Two independent activities are ready at time 0. Each needs the same single specialist full time for three days and cannot be split. Their common successor needs one day after both finish. No other qualified specialist is available. What is the earliest resource-feasible project finish?

1. 6 days.
2. 5 days.
3. 3 days.
4. 4 days.
5. 7 days.

Correct Answer: E

 

Correct Answer

Answer E is correct because the specialist must perform the two three-day activities sequentially, taking six days. The one-day common successor then finishes at time 7, even though pure network logic would allow parallel work.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because six days completes the specialist’s work but omits the one-day successor. Both prerequisite activities must finish before that final activity can begin.

Answer B is incorrect because this result would require overlap or reduced specialist effort that the scenario excludes. The two full-time three-day assignments require six specialist-days in sequence.

Answer C is incorrect because three days is only one activity’s duration. The non-splittable work and single specialist make simultaneous completion of both prerequisites infeasible.

Answer D is incorrect because this is the unconstrained result from running both activities in parallel and then the successor. It requires the single specialist to be fully allocated to two activities at once.

 

Question 11

A project must keep its current finish date. A resource peak can be reduced by moving noncritical work within its available free float; sufficient free float has been verified, and no new conflicts result. Which statements describe the appropriate adjustment? Choose TWO.

1. Shift the project finish by the same amount as the moved activity.
2. Spread the assignment evenly over the month using its average utilization.
3. Replace early dates with mandatory dates before moving the work.
4. Recheck the resulting resource profile and network dates after the moves.
5. Use the same float allowance independently for every activity on one serial chain.
6. Move the selected work only within the verified scheduling flexibility.

Correct Answers: D, F

 

Correct Answers

Answer D is correct because even planned adjustments should be verified in the schedule model. The check confirms the intended peak reduction and that the stated finish and dependency constraints remain satisfied.

Answer F is correct because the available free float permits these moves without delaying immediate successors. That directly satisfies the need to reduce the peak while preserving the existing completion date.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because the verified free float absorbs the move without delaying the immediate successor. Moving the overall finish by the same amount would ignore that existing flexibility.

Answer B is incorrect because an average does not show whether each activity’s required effort and handoff timing remain feasible. The adjustment should use the verified activity-level float and then confirm the resulting resource profile.

Answer C is incorrect because hard constraints are not necessary to use verified float and can mask later logic-driven changes. The existing network should calculate the adjusted dates.

Answer E is incorrect because float on a path may be shared. Treating it as separate time for each serial activity can consume more flexibility than the path actually has.

 

Question 12

An analysis needs 40 hours of effort from one analyst available four productive hours per working day. After the first 20 hours, the analyst must wait three full working days for an external decision before any remaining analysis can proceed. The work cannot be shared. Ignoring weekends and other holidays, how many working days does the complete sequence require?

1. 8 working days.
2. 10 working days.
3. 13 working days.
4. 20 working days.
5. 16 working days.

Correct Answer: C

 

Correct Answer

Answer C is correct because productive work requires 40 / 4 = 10 working days. The three-day external hold cannot overlap that work, so the full sequence is five days of analysis, three waiting days, and five more analysis days: thirteen.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because this assumes eight productive hours daily, giving five workdays plus three waiting days. The analyst is available only four hours daily for this work.

Answer B is incorrect because this correctly converts effort into productive duration but omits the mandatory three-day hold. The sequence includes elapsed working time when no analysis can proceed.

Answer D is incorrect because the three-day hold does not halve the analyst’s four-hour daily availability or double all productive work. The estimate should add the explicit wait once to the ten required workdays.

Answer E is incorrect because this adds the three-day external hold twice to the ten productive days. The scenario supplies one decision point and one nonoverlapping three-day wait.

 

Question 13

A stable installation method completes 12 identical devices per crew-day. One crew must install 84 devices. Site preparation takes two additional working days before installation; no other delays apply. What is the parametric duration estimate for this sequence?

1. 42 working days.
2. 6 working days.
3. 9 working days.
4. 14 working days.
5. 7 working days.

Correct Answer: C

 

Correct Answer

Answer C is correct because installation requires 84/12 = 7 crew-days. With one crew, that is seven working days, plus the two sequential preparation days for a total of nine.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because dividing the device count by the two preparation days uses the wrong rate. Production capacity is explicitly 12 devices per crew-day.

Answer B is incorrect because six days would supply at most 72 device installations even before including preparation. It cannot complete the specified sequence with the available crew.

Answer D is incorrect because this doubles the seven installation days without a stated basis. The extra work is a fixed two-day preparation activity, not a second installation cycle.

Answer E is incorrect because this estimates installation correctly but omits the mandatory preparation that must precede it. The question asks for the whole sequence.

 

Question 14

An activity has optimistic, most likely and pessimistic duration estimates of 4, 7 and 16 days. The planning method explicitly uses the PERT weighted mean (O + 4M + P)/6. What estimate should be entered, without treating it as a guaranteed finish?

1. 10 days.
2. 9 days.
3. 7 days.
4. 8 days.
5. 16 days.

Correct Answer: D

 

Correct Answer

Answer D is correct because the weighted total is 4 + 4(7) + 16 = 48, and 48/6 = 8. This is a model-based expected estimate, not a promise that every execution lasts eight days.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because ten is the midpoint of the optimistic and pessimistic estimates. It excludes the fourfold weight on the most likely value required by the specified method.

Answer B is incorrect because nine is the unweighted triangular mean, (4 + 7 + 16)/3. The scenario specifies a different weighting that emphasizes the most likely estimate.

Answer C is incorrect because seven is the most likely input, not the weighted mean. The pessimistic tail shifts the stated PERT estimate above that most likely value.

Answer E is incorrect because the pessimistic input may inform a risk discussion, but it is not the requested weighted estimate. Choosing it would replace the stated calculation with a different planning rule.

 

Question 15

A team uses a triangular distribution for a discovery task with minimum 3, most likely 6 and maximum 15 days. The agreed expected-duration formula is (minimum + most likely + maximum)/3. Which interpretation is correct?

1. The expected duration is 12 days because the range measures expected work.
2. The expected duration is 8 days, with uncertainty still represented by the range.
3. The expected duration is 7 days because the most likely value gets fourfold weight.
4. The expected duration is 6 days because the mode and mean must be equal.
5. The expected duration is 15 days and all shorter durations should be excluded.

Correct Answer: B

 

Correct Answer

Answer B is correct because the arithmetic is (3 + 6 + 15)/3 = 8. The expected value summarizes the distribution; it does not remove the possibility of shorter or longer durations within the model.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because 12 is the width from minimum to maximum. Spread describes uncertainty, not the central estimate of how long the task will take.

Answer C is incorrect because that is the result of a different, PERT-style weighting: (3 + 24 + 15)/6. The team explicitly selected the triangular mean instead.

Answer D is incorrect because the distribution is asymmetric. Its longer upper tail means the mean exceeds the most likely value, so these two summaries are not interchangeable.

Answer E is incorrect because 15 is the maximum input, not the specified mean. Excluding the rest of the range would discard the uncertainty model the team agreed to use.

 

Question 16

A hybrid project is estimating a migration unlike anything the team has performed. A supplier suggests using the average duration from a simpler migration, but the new project has an untested conversion tool and a larger data set. Which actions improve the estimate? Choose TWO.

1. Use the old average unchanged because historical data are always superior.
2. Apply a standard 20% allowance and treat the resulting date as validated.
3. Use the supplier’s most optimistic provisional duration as the committed finish.
4. Set the estimate equal to the sponsor’s preferred date and identify risks later.
5. Run a bounded conversion trial to inform duration ranges and assumptions.
6. Document the differences and adjust the analogy using relevant evidence.

Correct Answers: E, F

 

Correct Answers

Answer E is correct because a trial can provide direct evidence about throughput and failure handling for the new tool. That evidence helps refine uncertainty instead of presenting a weak point estimate as precise.

Answer F is correct because an analogous estimate is useful only to the extent that the earlier work is comparable. Tool maturity and volume are explicit differences that should be assessed rather than silently ignored.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because historical data are valuable, but their relevance depends on comparability. The known tool and scale differences may materially change the duration.

Answer B is incorrect because an allowance may be an initial assumption, but a standard percentage does not validate the effect of the unfamiliar tool and larger data volume. Those specific differences need evidence and an explicit uncertainty basis.

Answer C is incorrect because an optimistic input can inform a range, but it does not establish a credible commitment for an untested conversion method. The stated uncertainty calls for adjusted evidence and a bounded trial.

Answer D is incorrect because a target is not an estimate of required duration. Deferring known uncertainty would make the schedule appear feasible without evidence that the work can fit.

 

Question 17

An approved schedule contains an eight-day planning package between interface release and commissioning; the eight days represent all package execution, not separate planning effort. Before interface release, the work becomes defined: A takes three days; then B takes four days and C takes two days in parallel; D takes one day after both. The scheduler retains the eight-day placeholder as an activity and links this detailed network after it, forecasting sixteen days for the package. What is the correct schedule treatment?

1. Link A, B, C and D to start together, using the original package dates to control their finish.
2. Replace the placeholder with A–D, preserve the external handoffs, and recalculate the forecast against the approved baseline.
3. Keep sixteen days and replace the approved baseline because detailed schedules automatically supersede planning packages.
4. Retain the placeholder before A–D because planning-package time must precede detailed execution.
5. Keep the placeholder as an eight-day contingency allowance in addition to the detailed work.

Correct Answer: B

 

Correct Answer

Answer B is correct because the detailed network takes 3 + max(4, 2) + 1 = eight days. It elaborates the same execution already represented by the package, so the placeholder is not additional work. The package may remain a summary, but it must not contribute another sequential eight days; detailing alone does not authorize a new baseline.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because the stated internal handoffs require A before B and C, and both B and C before D. Dates imposed on an invalid parallel model do not preserve those dependencies or produce a credible detailed forecast.

Answer C is incorrect because the detail reveals no additional scope or net duration: its controlling sequence still takes eight days. It should refine the schedule model; any actual baseline change would require the applicable authority rather than occur automatically through elaboration.

Answer D is incorrect because the stem explicitly says the placeholder represents all execution and is not separate planning effort. Keeping it as a predecessor counts the same work duration twice and creates an artificial sixteen-day forecast.

Answer E is incorrect because no separate allowance is stated or authorized. Reclassifying execution already budgeted in time as contingency would still double-count the package and misrepresent the basis of the forecast.

 

Question 18

An agile software team expects to finish a device interface in three iterations. A hardware supplier promises an emulator only after the fourth iteration. End-to-end verification requires that emulator. What should the integrated release schedule show?

1. A longer software iteration so that the supplier date fits within it.
2. Use the promised emulator arrival date as the release forecast without adding verification work.
3. No supplier activity because the project manager does not control the supplier’s staff.
4. Release at iteration three because the team’s own backlog is expected to be complete.
5. The supplier dependency and the earliest verification date after emulator availability.

Correct Answer: E

 

Correct Answer

Answer E is correct because local development completion does not remove the external prerequisite for end-to-end verification. The release forecast must include the supplier event and the dependent verification work.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because changing the iteration length does not make the emulator arrive earlier or eliminate verification effort. The dependency needs explicit scheduling regardless of the team’s cadence.

Answer B is incorrect because arrival enables end-to-end verification but does not complete it. The integrated schedule must include both the prerequisite event and the dependent work before forecasting release.

Answer C is incorrect because lack of direct control is a reason to track an external dependency, not to omit it. Its delivery date affects the project’s feasible completion.

Answer D is incorrect because this ignores a stated condition for end-to-end verification. A local forecast is not the integrated release date when an external prerequisite finishes later.

 

Question 19

A release plan places all database work first, all service work second and all user-interface work last. No usable transaction can be tested for six weeks. The architecture permits a thin transaction across all three layers without completing every layer feature. Which schedule change most directly enables earlier integrated feedback?

1. Complete every database feature sooner while retaining the other two large phases.
2. Sequence a thin end-to-end transaction through the layers before expanding each layer.
3. Keep the layer phases and add daily progress presentations for earlier feedback.
4. Move all integration testing to the final week to maximize coding time.
5. Start all layer tasks simultaneously without identifying interface prerequisites.

Correct Answer: B

 

Correct Answer

Answer B is correct because the stated architecture permits a usable vertical slice. Scheduling it early creates integrated evidence and exposes interface problems before the team invests in every layer feature.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because this may advance one phase but still postpones end-to-end feedback until the remaining layers are available. It does not use the feasible slicing opportunity.

Answer C is incorrect because more frequent reports can reveal local activity but do not supply a working transaction across the layers. The architecture permits a thin integrated slice that produces the actual feedback needed.

Answer D is incorrect because this would postpone the feedback the question asks to obtain earlier. It also concentrates discovery of cross-layer problems near release.

Answer E is incorrect because parallel activity alone does not produce a coherent testable transaction. Explicit dependencies and a viable slice are needed to make early integration meaningful.

 

Question 20

An unchanged product backlog has 120 points remaining. A stable team has completed 20 to 30 points per two-week iteration under comparable conditions. Ignoring new scope and known special events, which rough release range is supported?

1. Exactly five iterations because the midpoint rate is 25 points.
2. Four to six iterations, or roughly eight to twelve weeks.
3. Four iterations guaranteed because the team has reached 30 points before.
4. Two to three iterations because each iteration lasts two weeks.
5. Eight to twelve iterations because points must be multiplied by iteration length.

Correct Answer: B

 

Correct Answer

Answer B is correct because 120/30 gives four iterations at the faster observed rate and 120/20 gives six at the slower rate. The range reflects the stated history and assumptions rather than a guaranteed date.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because 120/25 is 4.8, so five may be a central planning value, but the question asks for a supported range. A single rounded value hides the observed variability.

Answer C is incorrect because the fastest observed rate is not a guarantee. Using it alone ignores the explicitly stated variation and could overstate confidence in the earliest date.

Answer D is incorrect because the two-week duration converts iterations into weeks; it does not double the completed points per iteration. The backlog still needs four to six iterations.

Answer E is incorrect because this confuses the number of iterations with calendar weeks. Four to six two-week iterations produce eight to twelve weeks.

 

Question 21

A team forecasts ten comparable items in its next ten-working-day iteration based on one item per fully staffed working day. A known two-day holiday period removes two days of capacity; no catch-up work is planned. Which planning assumption is most defensible?

1. Assume items will take 20% less effort so that the original ten still fit.
2. Average the reduced capacity with the previous full iteration and forecast nine items.
3. Keep ten items and label two as tentative without adjusting the delivery expectation.
4. Use about eight items as the initial capacity-based forecast and review remaining uncertainty.
5. Keep ten items because iteration length is unchanged on the calendar.

Correct Answer: D

 

Correct Answer

Answer D is correct because the stated rate applied to eight available working days yields about eight items. The forecast accounts for the known capacity reduction without claiming that a simple rate eliminates all delivery uncertainty.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because no improvement in work size or productivity is supplied. Preserving the original forecast through an unsupported efficiency assumption ignores the explicit comparable-work rate.

Answer B is incorrect because the current loss is known, so averaging it with a period that had ten available days understates the specific reduction. At the stated rate, this iteration initially supports eight items.

Answer C is incorrect because a label does not provide the two missing productive days. Ten may describe demand, but the capacity-based forecast needs to reflect the eight available days and the absence of catch-up work.

Answer E is incorrect because calendar duration is not the same as available productive capacity. The scenario removes two working days and explicitly excludes catch-up work.

 

Question 22

A schedule simulation reports a 50% probability of completion by 10 June and an 80% probability by 24 June, under its recorded assumptions. The sponsor asks what these dates mean. Which interpretations are valid? Choose TWO.

1. An 80% date still leaves modeled outcomes that finish later.
2. Interpret the fourteen-day separation as the expected lateness after 10 June.
3. 24 June is the latest possible finish under all circumstances.
4. 10 June is wrong because the model also reports a later date.
5. 24 June carries a higher modeled likelihood of on-time completion than 10 June.
6. The 14-day difference is guaranteed to absorb every identified risk.

Correct Answers: A, E

 

Correct Answers

Answer A is correct because 80% is not certainty; approximately 20% of simulated outcomes exceed that date. The interpretation remains conditional on the network, ranges and risk assumptions used.

Answer E is correct because the cumulative probability rises from 50% to 80% at the later date. Within this model, allowing more time increases the chance that the required work finishes by the target.

Incorrect Answers

Answer B is incorrect because the gap separates two percentiles; it is not a calculation of mean lateness conditional on missing the earlier date. That statistic would require the distribution of later outcomes.

Answer C is incorrect because a percentile is not the maximum outcome, and the model cannot cover every unforeseen circumstance. Some modeled completions are already later than that date.

Answer D is incorrect because different percentiles answer different confidence questions. A 50% date and an 80% date can both be valid summaries of the same completion distribution.

Answer F is incorrect because the difference is a separation between percentile dates, not a universal risk allowance. Tail outcomes and combinations of risks may require more time.

 

Question 23

Three parallel field activities are each delayed by the same severe-weather event. A schedule simulation currently samples their durations independently. Why should the model be reviewed?

1. Apply the weather effect only to the historically longest activity.
2. The three activities must be made sequential whenever weather is uncertain.
3. Independent sampling guarantees a conservative estimate for every parallel network.
4. Independent sampling can understate joint delay exposure when a shared event affects all three.
5. Weather uncertainty is fully captured by adding the three most likely durations.

Correct Answer: D

 

Correct Answer

Answer D is correct because a common weather driver creates dependence among the durations. Modeling that relationship matters to the completion distribution, particularly when several branches can be delayed together.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because all three activities are exposed to the same event. Assigning the effect to just one branch omits simultaneous impacts even if that branch has often controlled previous finishes.

Answer B is incorrect because a common risk does not create a physical sequencing requirement. The issue is representing correlated uncertainty while retaining valid execution logic.

Answer C is incorrect because independence is an assumption, not a guarantee of conservatism. Shared adverse conditions can produce more simultaneous delay than an independent model represents.

Answer E is incorrect because adding most likely values neither represents the parallel network nor the range of common-weather outcomes. The model needs both valid logic and uncertainty dependence.

 

Question 24

A schedule continues to display a fixed finish date even after a driving activity slips by five days. The finish milestone has a mandatory-date constraint, and several activities show negative float. What should the scheduler do first to obtain a credible forecast?

1. Add matching finish constraints to the delayed activities so their dates align with the milestone.
2. Report that the slip had no effect because the finish milestone still displays the target.
3. Approve a new baseline finish before calculating the remaining network.
4. Apply uniform duration compression until the target date appears feasible, then review the assumptions.
5. Examine the constraint and calculate the logic-driven finish alongside the required date.

Correct Answer: E

 

Correct Answer

Answer E is correct because the imposed date may mask the forecasted consequence of the slip. Separating the required target from the network result reveals the gap that negative float signals.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because additional hard constraints can further hide the logic-driven timing conflict. They do not reduce the work or resolve the negative float that indicates the current plan cannot meet the imposed date.

Answer B is incorrect because a constrained display is not evidence that the work can still finish on time. Negative float indicates the current logic and duration conflict with the imposed date.

Answer C is incorrect because a new comparison date would not establish the current logic-driven result. The scheduler first needs to reveal the effect of the slip and constraint so any proposed change rests on a credible forecast.

Answer D is incorrect because fitting durations to a required date before validating the remaining work creates an unsupported recovery result. First reveal the logic-driven finish and its constraint conflict; any compression proposal then needs evidence of achievable changes.

 

Question 25

The team starts installation in completed zones while design is still unfinished in other zones. The schedule models design and installation as two whole-site activities with a finish-to-start link, so actual progress appears out of sequence. What is the best correction to the model?

1. Decompose the activities by valid zones and model the actual handoff dependencies.
2. Use the overall design percentage complete as the installation handoff.
3. Change the whole-site link to start-to-start with zero lag.
4. Keep the original logic and assume the software will interpret all partial handoffs.
5. Replace the whole-site finish-to-start link with only a finish-to-finish link.

Correct Answer: A

 

Correct Answer

Answer A is correct because the aggregate activities conceal the real partial deliveries that allow installation. Zone-level logic can represent legitimate overlap while preserving the design prerequisite for each installed zone.

Incorrect Answers

Answer B is incorrect because an aggregate percentage can include work from different zones and does not identify which zone has an approved design. The model needs observable zone-level handoffs to represent valid overlap.

Answer C is incorrect because starting design does not establish that each installation zone is ready. The actual permission is completed design for a particular zone, which a whole-site start relationship would fail to preserve.

Answer D is incorrect because the two aggregate activities do not contain the zone dependencies. The schedule must explicitly represent those relationships to forecast remaining work reliably.

Answer E is incorrect because a finish restriction alone does not require a particular zone’s design to be approved before its installation starts. The actual valid overlap depends on zone-specific completion handoffs, which remain hidden in the two aggregate activities.

 

Question 26

At the weekly schedule update, several activities are partially complete and a supplier handoff has changed. Which three actions are necessary to produce a defensible current forecast? Choose THREE.

1. Record verified actual starts and finishes through a common status date.
2. Carry forward initial remaining durations for open work until its actual finish is known.
3. Move the approved baseline dates to match all newly forecast dates.
4. Treat elapsed time as physical completion for every open activity.
5. Obtain current remaining-duration estimates for work still in progress.
6. Update valid remaining dependencies and recalculate the network with current calendars.

Correct Answers: A, E, F

 

Correct Answers

Answer A is correct because consistent actuals establish what has really happened by the update cutoff. Mixing different reporting dates or planned dates with actuals can create misleading progress and sequencing.

Answer E is correct because percent complete alone may not reveal how long the unfinished work needs. Owner estimates of remaining duration support a forecast that reflects current knowledge.

Answer F is correct because the supplier handoff can change downstream timing. Recalculation with the actual logic and working calendars reveals the current critical path and expected finish.

Incorrect Answers

Answer B is incorrect because waiting until completion discards current knowledge about work still ahead. Updated remaining-duration estimates are needed now to forecast the unfinished network credibly.

Answer C is incorrect because the baseline is the authorized comparison, not a rolling copy of the forecast. Updating actuals and forecasts does not itself authorize erasing the original variance.

Answer D is incorrect because time spent does not establish how much work was accomplished. A stalled activity may have consumed its planned time while retaining substantial remaining work.

 

Question 27

A hybrid project proposes starting fabrication before the entire design is approved. Only a stable subset can be safely released early; changes to other design areas may cause rework. Which actions make a fast-tracking proposal credible? Choose TWO.

1. Identify the stable handoff subset and the exact work allowed to overlap.
2. Remove design-review activities after fabrication starts.
3. Classify the proposal as crashing because it starts work earlier.
4. Release every design area so all fabrication can begin at once.
5. Assume that overlapping two activities cuts their combined duration in half.
6. Assess rework exposure and recalculate the integrated schedule gain.

Correct Answers: A, F

 

Correct Answers

Answer A is correct because fast tracking changes sequencing, so the proposal needs a technically valid boundary for overlap. The stated stable subset supports limited early fabrication without assuming all unfinished design is safe to use.

Answer F is correct because overlap may reduce duration but can create rework or shift the controlling path. The decision needs both a realistic net benefit and the consequences of using incomplete information.

Incorrect Answers

Answer B is incorrect because review remains required for the design areas that are not yet approved. Overlap does not make the remaining verification or authorization unnecessary.

Answer C is incorrect because crashing changes resource use to shorten duration, whereas this proposal changes sequencing through overlap. Starting earlier does not by itself establish resource-based compression.

Answer D is incorrect because the scenario identifies only one stable subset. Extending early release to unstable areas creates unsupported exposure and ignores the stated technical boundary.

Answer E is incorrect because the gain depends on handoffs, durations and the rest of the network. Neither equal durations nor complete overlap is established in this scenario.

 

Question 28

A project must recover two days. Its controlling path includes a six-day test that can be reduced to four days by an available qualified second crew. A noncritical task has five days of float. Technical sequencing cannot be overlapped. Which schedule action can meet the stated need, subject to approval of its resource impact?

1. Seek a two-day deadline extension before assessing the available second crew.
2. Add the qualified crew to the controlling test and verify the recalculated finish.
3. Assume the original crew can finish in four days without changing its method or allocation.
4. Begin the test before its technical predecessor is complete.
5. Add staff to the noncritical task because its float makes changes easier.

Correct Answer: B

 

Correct Answer

Answer B is correct because the stated resource option reduces a controlling activity by the required two days without violating sequencing. Recalculation confirms that another path does not limit the net project gain.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because an extension does not recover the required time. The scenario already provides a feasible resource option on the controlling work, so its integrated effect should be evaluated for the stated recovery goal.

Answer C is incorrect because the six-to-four-day reduction is supported specifically by adding the qualified crew. Without that resource change or another validated mechanism, a shorter duration would be an unsupported recovery assumption.

Answer D is incorrect because the scenario excludes overlapping the technical sequence. Fast tracking would therefore violate the stated execution constraint rather than provide a feasible recovery.

Answer E is incorrect because finishing an activity with five days of float sooner does not necessarily advance completion. The explicit opportunity to reduce the controlling test is the relevant recovery mechanism.

 

Question 29

A supplier provides a schedule ending at factory completion. The project’s installation plan starts on the same date, but shipping, customs processing and site receiving are required before installation. What change is needed to make the integrated schedule credible?

1. Add the intervening logistics and receiving activities with their dependencies and calendars.
2. Use procurement payment approval as the only installation prerequisite.
3. Keep the zero-lag factory-to-installation link and track transport only in a separate report.
4. Add a percentage of the installation duration as an undocumented allowance.
5. Move installation to the supplier’s preferred date without retaining a link.

Correct Answer: A

 

Correct Answer

Answer A is correct because factory completion is not site availability. Modeling the required intervening work connects the supplier milestone to the actual installation prerequisite and exposes its duration and uncertainty.

Incorrect Answers

Answer B is incorrect because payment approval does not establish that the equipment has reached the site and been received. The specified logistics steps remain necessary.

Answer C is incorrect because a separate transport note does not make logistics delays propagate into installation dates. The required intervening activities need explicit links in the integrated forecast.

Answer D is incorrect because a generic allowance is not a substitute for known activities with distinct owners and calendars. Explicit logistics logic provides a more reviewable forecast.

Answer E is incorrect because an isolated date does not preserve the causal relationship. Later supplier or logistics changes would fail to propagate through the integrated network.

 

Question 30

A schedule contains an explicit ten-day project buffer. Five days have been consumed while only one quarter of the protected work is complete. The project’s policy calls for review when buffer consumption exceeds work completion proportion. Which three responses fit this situation? Choose THREE.

1. Wait until the buffer is exhausted because the schedule still contains spare time.
2. Declare a five-day final delay because every consumed buffer day is lateness.
3. Move the required finish five days later to replenish the buffer before reviewing its use.
4. Investigate the causes of consumption and the remaining work that could use the buffer.
5. Trigger the specified review because 50% of the buffer is consumed against 25% completion.
6. Update the completion forecast using the remaining buffer and feasible response options.

Correct Answers: D, E, F

 

Correct Answers

Answer D is correct because buffer usage is an early warning only when connected to the work and risks it protects. Examining remaining exposure helps distinguish a one-time event from continuing pressure.

Answer E is correct because the observed proportions cross the explicit policy threshold. The trigger identifies the need to investigate; it does not by itself establish that the project will miss its final date.

Answer F is correct because five days of protection remain, and current evidence may change the forecast. Response options should be evaluated against the actual network rather than assuming the original finish is still certain.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because the policy deliberately triggers earlier than exhaustion. Waiting would ignore the specified comparison and reduce the time available for a useful response.

Answer B is incorrect because buffer is planned protection against variability. Consuming part of it need not delay the project finish, especially while five days remain.

Answer C is incorrect because changing the target does not explain why protection was consumed or satisfy the existing review rule. The trigger requires an evidence-based response before any separate decision to change a commitment.

 

Question 31

During logic review, the scheduler finds that A must finish before B, B before C, and C before A. None has started. What is the appropriate next step?

1. Choose the shortest activity as critical and run the calculation unchanged.
2. Mark all three activities critical and publish the resulting date with a warning.
3. Set all three activities to start on the same day while preserving all links.
4. Resolve the circular dependency with the work owners before calculating a credible schedule.
5. Remove the least consequential-looking link, publish a provisional date, and confirm the handoff later.

Correct Answer: D

 

Correct Answer

Answer D is correct because the three finish-to-start requirements form a cycle with no feasible starting activity. The team must correct mistaken logic or redefine the work into valid handoffs before using the dates.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because duration does not break a dependency cycle. Even the shortest activity still waits for its predecessor, so the network remains infeasible.

Answer B is incorrect because critical labels cannot resolve a cycle in which every activity waits for another to finish. A warning does not make that calculated date credible; valid handoffs must be established first.

Answer C is incorrect because simultaneous starts violate the stated finish-before-start requirements. A date override would hide the contradiction rather than create valid sequencing.

Answer E is incorrect because apparent low consequence does not establish that a dependency is invalid. Publishing the resulting date would rely on an unverified model; the work owners need to resolve the actual circular handoff before the forecast can be treated as credible.

 

Question 32

Activities J and K are sequential on the same noncritical path. That path has four days of total float. J’s owner plans a three-day slip and K’s owner independently plans another three-day slip. Neither changes any other duration. Which conclusions are correct? Choose TWO.

1. Approve J’s request now and leave K’s known request for the next update.
2. The combined proposal creates two extra days of float.
3. Both slips fit because each is individually smaller than four days.
4. The combined proposal requires coordination because it would extend the finish by two days.
5. The proposed slips consume six days on a path with only four days of flexibility.
6. The project finish must slip by six days because any use of float is lateness.

Correct Answers: D, E

 

Correct Answers

Answer D is correct because six days of added path length exceed the four available days by two, under the stated unchanged network. A coordinated plan is needed to avoid or explicitly address that finish impact.

Answer E is correct because serial delays accumulate along the path. The same four-day allowance cannot be treated as a separate reserve for each activity when both changes affect the same finish chain.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because both proposed delays are already known and consume the same path allowance. Evaluating only the first would postpone recognition of a predictable two-day combined finish impact.

Answer B is incorrect because adding six days of delay consumes float; it does not create it. The path exceeds its available allowance by two days.

Answer C is incorrect because that reasoning considers the changes separately and spends the same path flexibility twice. Their combined effect is the relevant schedule calculation.

Answer F is incorrect because the first four days can be absorbed by the path’s existing flexibility. Only the two-day excess transfers to project completion under the stated assumptions.

 

Question 33

A schedule uses a ten-day negative lag to start testing before a large development activity finishes. In practice, testing may start only when a specific interface package is delivered. The negative lag makes the handoff difficult to track. What is the better model?

1. Link testing only to the start of the full development activity.
2. Remove the testing predecessor because development is iterative.
3. Represent the interface delivery explicitly and link its completion to the relevant testing.
4. Convert the lead into a start-to-start lag based on the original development duration.
5. Replace the lead with a mandatory testing start date.

Correct Answer: C

 

Correct Answer

Answer C is correct because an observable handoff milestone or smaller activity ties testing to real readiness. It is more transparent than assuming that a fixed lead always coincides with delivery as development changes.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because development starting does not mean the interface package is available. The required handoff is a later completion event within that work.

Answer B is incorrect because iterative work still has dependencies. The scenario identifies an exact package required for testing, so that relationship should remain explicit.

Answer D is incorrect because a fixed offset from development start still assumes when the package becomes ready. An explicit interface-delivery event tracks the actual handoff as development progresses or changes.

Answer E is incorrect because a fixed date would not respond to a late interface delivery. The schedule should calculate testing readiness from its actual prerequisite.

 

Question 34

A duration estimate states that commissioning will take six days. Before the estimate is approved, reviewers learn that it assumes an eight-hour shift, immediate access to a test rig and no defect retesting. Which information belongs in the schedule basis? Choose TWO.

1. A statement that six days is guaranteed once the estimate is approved.
2. The treatment of retesting uncertainty and any separately modeled allowance.
3. The resource calendar and availability assumptions supporting the six-day duration.
4. A hidden extra day inside every activity regardless of its risk exposure.
5. Only the final six-day value, because assumptions belong exclusively in contracts.
6. An instruction to preserve the estimate even if test-rig access is withdrawn.

Correct Answers: B, C

 

Correct Answers

Answer B is correct because excluding retesting can materially affect the forecast. The basis should make that exclusion and any risk treatment visible so that uncertainty is neither ignored nor counted twice.

Answer C is correct because productive hours and rig access determine how effort translates into duration. Recording them lets reviewers judge feasibility and recognize when changed availability requires re-estimation.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because approval authorizes a planning basis; it does not eliminate uncertainty. The explicit assumptions show conditions under which the estimate may change.

Answer D is incorrect because undocumented padding obscures the estimate basis and may duplicate a separate allowance. Uncertainty should be addressed transparently and tied to relevant work.

Answer E is incorrect because schedule assumptions are essential to interpreting the estimate even when no contract is involved. Omitting them makes later variance and forecast analysis unreliable.

Answer F is incorrect because loss of a key resource assumption changes feasibility. A credible schedule should be recalculated when that condition changes, while retaining the baseline for comparison.

 

Question 35

The two remaining paths to a milestone are A-B, taking 5 + 5 days, and C-D, taking 4 + 5 days. They share no activities and have unlimited resources. The milestone must be reached in eight days. Approved options can shorten B by two days and D by one day. Which combination meets the target?

1. Shorten B by two days only.
2. Make no changes because the average activity duration is below eight days.
3. Shorten B by two days and D by one day.
4. Shorten B by one day and D by one day.
5. Shorten D by one day only.

Correct Answer: C

 

Correct Answer

Answer C is correct because the paths become 5 + 3 = 8 and 4 + 4 = 8 days. Both required paths then fit the eight-day target; shortening only the original critical path leaves the other at nine.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because path A-B becomes eight days, but C-D remains nine. The second path would become controlling and keep the milestone one day beyond the target.

Answer B is incorrect because the milestone depends on complete paths, not an average of activity durations. Both original path lengths exceed the target and require feasible reduction.

Answer D is incorrect because the paths become nine and eight days. A-B would still control at nine, leaving a one-day gap to the required milestone.

Answer E is incorrect because path C-D becomes eight days, but A-B remains ten. The unchanged original critical path still prevents the target from being met.