PMI PMP Impediments Issues and Escalation Practice Test
Topic 23 covers impediments issues and escalation for the PMI Project Management Professional (PMP) certification. These original scenarios apply the July 2026 exam objectives across predictive, agile and hybrid projects. Use the stated constraints to select one answer unless the question specifies otherwise. For broader preparation, visit the PMP Exam Dumps page. Each option has an explanation of its role in the decision.
Question 1
A predictive project’s risk register says a supplier may miss delivery. The agreed delivery date has now passed, and the supplier confirms that the equipment will arrive ten days late. No response has been activated. What should the manager do?
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer
Answer B is correct because the uncertainty about whether this delivery would be late has become a current condition. Linking the records preserves history while assigning immediate action and tracking the actual schedule impact.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because the supplier’s forecast changes expected performance but does not automatically authorize a project baseline change. Issue management should assess recovery options and any approval needed.
Answer C is incorrect because the delivery failure is already confirmed, so probability reassessment alone does not address it. Current impact and response ownership need attention now.
Answer D is incorrect because closing the uncertainty without managing its realized consequence would lose the active delay. The ten-day impact still needs an owned response.
Answer E is incorrect because more detail may improve the response, but the confirmed missed date already establishes a current issue. Recording and assessing it need not wait for another forecast.
Question 2
An adaptive service team has two open issues. One affects the formatting of internal reports; the other prevents a small group of customers from completing time-sensitive claims. Policy prioritizes actual service harm and time to irreversible loss. Which two facts should drive triage? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: A, B
Correct Answers
Answer A is correct because a small population can still face severe harm if its deadline is near and no alternative exists. These facts establish urgency and recoverability under the policy.
Answer B is correct because severity and exposure together describe the actual impact. They allow a reasoned comparison with the internal report issue without using requester seniority as a substitute for service harm.
Incorrect Answers
Answer C is incorrect because age can reveal neglected work, but it does not by itself rank these two impacts. A new claims blocker may be more urgent than an older formatting defect.
Answer D is incorrect because repair effort can help plan feasible work, but the policy defines priority through harm and urgency. A short repair can still concern a severe deadline-bound consequence.
Answer E is incorrect because requesters can describe concerns, but their labels may use different assumptions. Triage needs evidence about current consequences and recoverability under the shared policy.
Answer F is incorrect because ease matters when sequencing feasible responses, but the policy prioritizes harm and urgency. Finishing a small task first could let a consequential deadline pass.
Question 3
A predictive integration team reports that ‘the vendor interface is broken.’ The vendor cannot reproduce the problem and asks which transaction fails. The project has no example, timestamp or expected result attached to the issue. What should the manager arrange first?
Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer
Answer A is correct because a concrete failure description lets both teams investigate the same condition. Transaction details and context reduce the chance of debating different environments or symptoms before selecting a correction.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because replacement may be disproportionate and may not address the cause. The current evidence does not yet establish which behavior fails or why.
Answer C is incorrect because no evidence supports that solution or duration yet. Reforecasting can follow diagnosis, but a speculative rebuild estimate should not determine the initial response.
Answer D is incorrect because a deadline may later be needed, but the vendor has asked for essential diagnostic context rather than refused action. A reproducible example gives the recovery discussion a defined problem to solve.
Answer E is incorrect because broad testing may miss the project-specific failure if its transaction and environment remain unknown. A reproducible example makes the investigation targeted and comparable.
Question 4
A hybrid project’s reconciliation failure blocks daily reporting. A tested manual workaround can restore reporting for five business days, after which volume makes it infeasible. Policy allows the workaround only with an owner and an exit plan. Which two arrangements are needed? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: D, E
Correct Answers
Answer D is correct because a tested procedure still requires people able to execute it reliably each day. Accepted ownership makes the temporary restoration feasible rather than assuming spare capacity will appear.
Answer E is correct because the workaround’s usefulness expires as volume grows. An explicit exit decision prevents temporary relief from concealing an unresolved issue until the manual route fails.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because one successful workaround execution does not remove the reconciliation failure. The permanent response and time limit still need active tracking.
Answer B is incorrect because a response may need development, testing or approval time. Beginning only at expiry risks a service gap when the temporary method becomes infeasible.
Answer C is incorrect because one successful day does not show that the method can handle the volume that makes it infeasible after the stated window. Extension needs a viable assessed and authorized arrangement, not repetition of the initial result.
Answer F is incorrect because general availability does not establish who will perform the manual process or how capacity is covered. The policy requires an actionable owner and exit plan.
Question 5
A predictive project faces an issue that requires a sponsor choice: fund a 40,000 workaround or accept a two-week delay. The manager has validated both estimates, and the sponsor must decide by noon tomorrow to retain the workaround option. What escalation is most useful?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because the sponsor needs a specific choice at an explicit time, with enough evidence to weigh cost against delay. A recommendation makes the escalation actionable without taking over the sponsor’s authority.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because the deadline makes the decision urgent but does not grant the manager authority to spend. The escalation should reach the sponsor in time for a valid commitment.
Answer B is incorrect because the validated workaround remains available until tomorrow. Presenting only delay would hide a real option the sponsor is authorized to consider.
Answer C is incorrect because the relevant decision could be lost among unrelated entries. The manager has already done the analysis and should frame the required choice directly.
Answer E is incorrect because that timing would remove the workaround option before the decision. The explicit noon deadline requires an earlier decision route.
Question 6
A hybrid project asks an infrastructure team to resolve a blocked environment. The issue has been forwarded to that team, but no one has accepted ownership or a response date. Which two actions prevent the escalation from becoming a lost handoff? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: A, D
Correct Answers
Answer A is correct because forwarding a request does not establish that someone can act on it. Acceptance and a response point make the transfer observable and give the project a basis for follow-up.
Answer D is correct because the project remains exposed to the blocker even when another group supplies the fix. Continuing coordination ensures the issue does not disappear between organizational queues.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because duplicate uncoordinated requests can create conflicting work and unclear ownership. A confirmed accountable route is more useful than multiplying records without a recipient.
Answer C is incorrect because a name entered unilaterally is not accepted responsibility or evidence of capacity. The recipient needs to acknowledge the action and timing.
Answer E is incorrect because an external queue does not establish accepted ownership or a response date. The project still depends on the environment and should retain tracking until the handoff and resulting action are confirmed.
Answer F is incorrect because that leaves the project without an agreed response point and may conceal a stalled handoff. Continued tracking is needed until ownership and progress are confirmed.
Question 7
An adaptive delivery board shows six blocked items behind a missing test credential and two blocked items behind a failed payment service. The six credential-dependent items have two weeks of slack; the payment failure stops tomorrow’s agreed pilot. One specialist can address only one blocker today. What is the best priority?
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer
Answer B is correct because the number of blocked cards does not capture their consequence or available slack. The payment failure threatens tomorrow’s pilot, while the larger credential queue can absorb today’s delay under the stated facts.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because using available capacity is not the same as protecting the delivery commitment. The specialist can address the payment blocker today, and postponing it risks tomorrow’s pilot while nonurgent work progresses.
Answer C is incorrect because raw blocked-item count ignores timing and impact. Clearing six nonurgent cards may look productive while leaving the pilot’s critical dependency unresolved.
Answer D is incorrect because equal attention may leave neither dependency restored in time. The priority should protect the nearer commitment, using the specialist’s capacity where it can remove that constraint.
Answer E is incorrect because both deserve ownership, but the explicit slack and pilot timing distinguish their urgency. Equal labels would conceal the decision the team needs to make today.
Question 8
A predictive project’s hosting provider has missed an agreed environment-delivery milestone. The contract gives its service manager the first formal recovery-plan obligation. The project has already confirmed the failure and its schedule effect, but no formal recovery request has been sent. What should the manager do next?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because the facts needed to establish the missed obligation are available, and the contract names the initial corrective route. Using it seeks an actionable provider response before jumping to remedies whose prerequisites may not be met.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because termination may require additional conditions and would create its own delivery disruption. The stated first route is a formal recovery-plan request, which has not yet been used.
Answer B is incorrect because a replacement could be a recovery option, but committing it now bypasses both the provider’s obligation and the need to evaluate the alternative’s effects.
Answer C is incorrect because the environment is already late and affecting the schedule. The contract supplies a current corrective route that does not depend on the monthly review.
Answer E is incorrect because notification documents impact but does not invoke the agreed recovery-plan obligation. The project needs a proposed remedy and accountable timing, not just acknowledgment of delay.
Question 9
An adaptive team’s service issue is temporarily relieved by restarting a process. It fails again under the same transaction pattern, and the issue owner proposes another restart as final resolution. The closure criterion requires that the pattern succeed without intervention. What should the manager recommend?
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer
Answer C is correct because restarts restore availability briefly but do not meet the stated criterion. The repeated pattern provides a concrete condition against which a durable correction can be assessed.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because no evidence identifies a training gap as the cause. The reproducible transaction condition should guide diagnosis and verification of the actual correction.
Answer B is incorrect because planned intervention may be a proposed workaround, but the criterion explicitly requires operation without it. Changing that requirement would need a separate authorized decision.
Answer D is incorrect because the known repeated failure already contradicts the closure criterion. Waiting for a complaint would treat temporary relief as proof of resolution.
Answer E is incorrect because total uptime may provide context but does not answer the defined closure test. A favorable aggregate can coexist with the same unresolved failure.
Question 10
A predictive project receives a vendor email saying that an interface issue is fixed. The acceptance check requires a successful end-to-end transaction from the project environment, but that check has not run. What is the appropriate status?
Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer
Answer A is correct because the vendor’s completion report is relevant progress but does not establish that the project can complete the affected transaction. Keeping verification pending preserves an accurate distinction between implemented correction and confirmed resolution.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because the agreed closure evidence is an end-to-end result, not a local assertion. The project may still encounter configuration or integration problems after the component fix.
Answer C is incorrect because separating the check from closure would still declare resolution before the agreed evidence exists. The end-to-end check is a condition of this issue’s completion, not merely a later assurance task.
Answer D is incorrect because additional local testing could help if the component evidence were unreliable, but it does not replace the specified project-environment transaction. The missing proof is end-to-end behavior.
Answer E is incorrect because the agreed missing evidence is an end-to-end transaction in the project environment. An additional meeting to endorse a completion email does not provide that evidence and is not a stated prerequisite to testing.
Question 11
An adaptive project’s issue can be resolved only by a design change. The board has approved that change, but implementation is scheduled for next week and the affected workflow remains blocked. What should the issue owner do?
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer
Answer C is correct because approval authorizes a response but does not remove the current blockage. Linking the records preserves both the implementation route and the evidence needed to establish actual resolution.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because affected users still need the current impact and expected resolution timing. Approval does not eliminate the need to communicate a continuing service block.
Answer B is incorrect because the workflow is still unavailable. A decision to act is progress, but closure would overstate the operating condition before implementation and verification.
Answer D is incorrect because the response still needs its approved implementation control. The issue and change records serve related but different purposes and should remain linked.
Answer E is incorrect because the current issue still requires visibility of readiness, dependencies and the planned response. Approval does not justify suspending action tracking while the workflow remains blocked.
Question 12
A hybrid pilot is producing incorrect invoices. The exact cause is unknown, but the team can immediately suspend automated sending while preserving completed transactions for review. Policy permits this temporary containment and requires diagnosis before choosing a permanent fix. Which two actions are appropriate now? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: B, D
Correct Answers
Answer B is correct because a bounded, permitted containment step reduces ongoing harm without requiring certainty about the root cause. Preserving transactions allows the investigation and later correction to proceed.
Answer D is correct because permanent correction should address the cause rather than a convenient guess. The retained evidence can distinguish data, logic and configuration explanations while containment limits additional impact.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because a recent change is a useful hypothesis, but timing alone does not establish causation. The permitted containment and retained evidence allow diagnosis before the team commits to a lasting remedy.
Answer C is incorrect because the policy already permits a reversible containment step, and incorrect invoices are continuing. Waiting would expose more customers without being necessary for diagnosis.
Answer E is incorrect because this commits to a permanent technical solution before the cause is established and leaves harmful output continuing during the replacement. The authorized suspension can contain impact while evidence supports diagnosis.
Answer F is incorrect because familiarity does not establish that the patch addresses this failure. The policy requires diagnosis before selecting the lasting correction.
Question 13
A predictive project issue involves a restricted customer dataset. The escalation policy allows the security specialist to see the detailed evidence, while the steering board should receive the business impact and decision request without personal records. What should the manager prepare?
Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer
Answer A is correct because the two audiences need different information to perform their roles. This preserves enough technical detail for investigation and enough business context for governance without exceeding the defined access boundary.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because removing personal details is appropriate, but identifiers alone do not support the board’s decision. The policy calls for a business-impact and decision summary that preserves useful context without exposing restricted records.
Answer C is incorrect because detailed access is reserved for the specialist under the stated policy. Board transparency can be achieved through impact and decision information rather than unrestricted source records.
Answer D is incorrect because information access and business authority are distinct. The specialist supplies analysis; the board receives a safe decision-ready summary within its role.
Answer E is incorrect because the board may need that level, but the specialist requires detailed evidence to investigate. Applying one minimal package to everyone would impair the authorized technical response.
Question 14
Three hybrid workstreams report separate failures caused by the same unavailable identity service. Each has opened a ticket and proposed a different local workaround. An integration owner can coordinate the shared dependency. What should the manager recommend?
Correct Answer: E
Correct Answer
Answer E is correct because the common cause needs a coherent owner and remedy, but each affected workflow still has its own consequence and closure evidence. Linking the issues avoids conflicting local responses without losing downstream visibility.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because incompatible local workarounds can worsen integration and complicate restoration of the shared service. A coordinated response can evaluate which temporary measures remain compatible.
Answer B is incorrect because consolidating ownership is useful, but discarding distinct verification needs could leave one workflow broken after the shared service returns. Coordination should preserve those checks.
Answer C is incorrect because the unavailable service is the common dependency. Handling symptom tickets sequentially without addressing it may not restore any durable capability.
Answer D is incorrect because ticket age does not establish authority over the common identity dependency. The integration owner can coordinate a compatible response while preserving the individual impacts and verification needs.
Question 15
An adaptive team is blocked because its build queue repeatedly exceeds the available agent capacity. Evidence shows that many jobs are obsolete duplicate builds, and the team is authorized to cancel those jobs. No additional budget is needed. What should the manager encourage first?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because the evidence identifies a locally controllable source of unnecessary demand. Acting within the existing authorization can resolve the blocker quickly, and checking the result establishes whether further capacity action is needed.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because observation may reveal patterns, but the obstructing obsolete jobs are already identified. Monitoring alone does not use the available remedy.
Answer B is incorrect because extra capacity may be justified later, but the known avoidable demand should be removed first. Otherwise the purchase could mask a problem the team can already correct.
Answer C is incorrect because that decision is expressly within team authority. An additional approval layer delays a bounded response without resolving a governance gap.
Answer E is incorrect because a broad frequency reduction would also delay useful builds without first removing the known avoidable demand. The team already has authority for the targeted cleanup and can then check whether further capacity action is needed.
Question 16
A predictive project’s test environment works for one account but fails for another. The software build and test data are identical; the failed account lacks a required role. The team proposes a full application rebuild. What should the manager support?
Correct Answer: E
Correct Answer
Answer E is correct because the evidence isolates a relevant difference that directly explains the failed access. A targeted correction and retest can resolve the issue without assuming the identical application build is defective.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because that broad remedy does not address the distinguishing evidence. It can consume time and introduce changes while leaving the missing role unchanged.
Answer B is incorrect because this may grant more access than the specific missing role requires. The response should restore the necessary permission through the authorized account process, not broaden access indiscriminately.
Answer C is incorrect because the same build and data already isolate a known required-role difference between the accounts. Repeating data variation first is less direct than correcting that specific authorized configuration gap and verifying the result.
Answer D is incorrect because the evidence already identifies a specific required permission difference. A full reset adds broader work and may retain the same missing role unless that known cause is corrected and tested.
Question 17
A predictive project’s recovery option needs two full business days for fabrication and one for delivery. Delivery must finish by Friday at 17:00. Each working day runs 09:00 to 17:00, there are no holidays, and work starts at 09:00 on the business day after sponsor approval. What is the latest approval time that preserves this option?
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer
Answer C is correct because approval by Tuesday’s close permits fabrication on Wednesday and Thursday and delivery on Friday. A later approval would push the first full workday to Thursday and completion beyond the required Friday finish.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because approval on Monday would preserve the option, with fabrication on Tuesday and Wednesday and delivery on Thursday. It is earlier than necessary; Tuesday approval still supports completion by Friday, so Monday is not the latest useful deadline.
Answer B is incorrect because the rule starts work on the next business day after approval, so even early Wednesday approval means Thursday is the first fabrication day. Friday would then be fabrication rather than delivery.
Answer D is incorrect because this leaves Thursday and Friday for the two fabrication days, with delivery on Monday. It misses the Friday deadline under the stated next-day start rule.
Answer E is incorrect because the delivery deadline is not the decision deadline. Waiting until Friday would leave none of the required fabrication and transport sequence inside the available window.
Question 18
A hybrid project’s connectivity issue prevents support agents from opening customer cases. Infrastructure restores network access, but the case application still rejects their requests. The issue’s closure criterion is successful case access. Which two actions are appropriate? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: A, C
Correct Answers
Answer A is correct because one technical component is restored, but the defined user capability is not. Accurate component status and an open business issue show both the improvement and the remaining blockage.
Answer C is correct because the evidence now identifies an application-stage obstacle. Continuing with the appropriate owner and the original case-access check carries the response through to the required end-to-end result.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because agents still cannot perform the required function. The remaining defect is part of the current service issue, not an optional improvement.
Answer D is incorrect because the first cause hypothesis does not define completion. The stated success condition remains unmet despite network restoration.
Answer E is incorrect because that would narrow the requirement after partial progress. The issue was opened to restore case access, so its business-level criterion should remain visible.
Answer F is incorrect because repetition may not address the remaining failure, which now occurs at a different stage. The response should follow the new evidence.
Question 19
A hybrid project’s issue was initially rated critical because it blocked every sales channel. A verified alternative now handles all time-sensitive orders, though a lower-volume channel remains unavailable. Policy requires issue priority to reflect current impact while retaining the original history. What should the manager do?
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer
Answer C is correct because the impact has materially changed, so priority should reflect the remaining exposure under policy. The issue stays visible with its history and outstanding scope rather than keeping an obsolete severity or claiming complete resolution.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because that ignores the policy’s current-impact basis. The remaining issue may still be important, but its priority should be reassessed against the now-working alternative.
Answer B is incorrect because the lower-volume channel remains unavailable. Reduced urgency does not establish that the full required service has been restored or formally accepted as a different state.
Answer D is incorrect because the alternative is what reduces current harm. Its continuing effectiveness matters to the revised rating and should remain part of the monitoring basis.
Answer E is incorrect because defect count does not measure the current business consequence. The verified alternative has changed urgent-order impact even though the underlying defect count may be unchanged.
Question 20
A predictive project’s sponsor may accept a known low-impact issue if its business effect is documented, an operational owner agrees, and a review date is set. A report-format defect is too costly to correct within the remaining project, but operations can work with it. What is the appropriate recommendation?
Correct Answer: E
Correct Answer
Answer E is correct because the policy provides a controlled disposition for this current issue. Explicit acceptance records the consequence and continued responsibility rather than pretending the defect has been corrected.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because developers can explain the technical limitation and repair cost, but the policy assigns acceptance to the sponsor with operational agreement.
Answer B is incorrect because the policy requires an accepted operational owner. Notification alone does not establish that the receiving team can take responsibility.
Answer C is incorrect because the policy expressly permits documented acceptance with operational ownership and a review date. A mandatory full correction would remove the permitted business tradeoff despite the stated repair cost and usable report.
Answer D is incorrect because a usable workaround does not make the formatting behavior conform. The record should distinguish accepted limitation from a successful correction.
Question 21
An adaptive team’s approved workaround restores a blocked import but creates duplicate notification emails. The workaround owner argues that only the original import issue should be tracked until it is closed. What should the manager recommend?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because a response can solve one problem while creating another current consequence. Recording the new effect allows the team to compare the workaround’s net impact and adjust it without losing the original import status.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because the notifications are a direct observed effect of the workaround. Their relationship matters when judging the response, even if separate action records are useful.
Answer B is incorrect because withdrawal could restore the more serious import blockage. The team needs a proportionate assessment of the combined effects before choosing whether to adjust or reverse it.
Answer C is incorrect because capacity alone does not establish the right response. The team should understand the workaround interaction and its impact before committing a remedy.
Answer E is incorrect because the additional harm exists now and may change whether the workaround is acceptable. Sequential paperwork should not delay assessment of a known response consequence.
Question 22
A hybrid project’s board resolves an escalated resource issue by funding temporary test capacity. The approval names the project manager to arrange it, but no booking has been made. Which two actions turn the decision into issue resolution? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: B, F
Correct Answers
Answer B is correct because the issue concerns inability to perform work, not lack of a funding entry. A practical verification establishes whether the approved response restored the needed capability.
Answer F is correct because the funding decision enables capacity but does not provide it. Concrete actions with accountable timing connect the board’s direction to usable support for the blocked testing.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because the approved response is temporary capacity, and implementation responsibility is assigned. Waiting for an informal offer fails to execute that decision.
Answer C is incorrect because a reservation is useful progress, but the test capacity may remain unusable without readiness work. Closure requires evidence that the required tests can actually run.
Answer D is incorrect because the decision already assigns implementation to the project manager. Unless a new authority boundary is encountered, further provider selection by the board does not replace booking, onboarding and verification of the required capacity.
Answer E is incorrect because a budget code is an enabling administrative step but not proof that test capacity exists. Booking and operational readiness remain unresolved.
Question 23
A hybrid project’s issue was closed after a tested fix. Two days later, the same documented failure occurs again under the same conditions. The issue process allows reopening when closure evidence is contradicted. What should the manager do?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because the new observation contradicts the basis of closure and fits the process’s reopening condition. Linking it to the earlier fix preserves useful diagnostic history instead of treating the event as unrelated.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because prior effort does not determine present impact or successful resolution. The recurrence should be assessed on its current evidence and consequences.
Answer B is incorrect because a new record could be useful in some systems, but severing the link loses directly relevant history. The stated reopening route is designed for this recurrence.
Answer C is incorrect because the documented recurrence already contradicts closure evidence and meets the stated reopening rule. Supplier agreement may inform investigation but is not a prerequisite to recording the renewed failure.
Answer E is incorrect because the fresh evidence shows that the prior conclusion may no longer hold. Waiting solely because a test once passed delays response to a current repeated failure.
Question 24
A predictive project’s issue owner promises a correction by Thursday. The correction requires a specialist and a controlled test slot, neither of which is booked. The deadline is important but not yet committed externally. What should the manager do?
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer
Answer C is correct because a date is only supportable if the required execution and verification capacity is feasible. Confirming those dependencies can produce an evidence-based commitment or an early revised forecast.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because the problem is already current, and a resource dependency does not convert it back into a merely possible event. It remains an issue needing a feasible response plan.
Answer B is incorrect because implementation effort alone does not include the unbooked specialist and controlled verification slot. A credible resolution date must account for those dependencies before it is treated as committed.
Answer D is incorrect because accountability is necessary but does not supply unavailable resources or a test slot. The forecast needs a feasible path as well as a responsible person.
Answer E is incorrect because the test is a known closure dependency. Delaying its reservation could leave finished code waiting for verification after the promised date.
Question 25
A hybrid project has several unresolved delivery issues and inconsistent status updates. Its issue-control policy requires accountable action, a testable closure condition and escalation before response options expire. Which three changes directly meet these requirements? Choose THREE.
Correct Answers: A, B, D
Correct Answers
Answer A is correct because a testable closure condition distinguishes genuine resolution from an installed fix, a workaround or an agreed limitation. It lets different contributors report status against the same outcome.
Answer B is correct because a response can become unavailable before the eventual delivery deadline. Linking escalation timing to that point enables a decision while meaningful options remain.
Answer D is correct because this makes responsibility and immediate progress observable. Naming a department without an accepted action would leave the same coordination gap behind the inconsistent updates.
Incorrect Answers
Answer C is incorrect because indiscriminate escalation overloads decision makers and bypasses usable local authority. The policy calls for the right recipient before an option expires, not the highest level for every issue.
Answer E is incorrect because a uniform meeting cycle can occur after a response option expires. Consistent control requires issue-specific decision deadlines and the appropriate recipient, not identical escalation timing.
Answer F is incorrect because deciding the success condition afterward can confuse local task completion with restored capability. Closure evidence should be explicit enough to guide the response and verification.
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