Cisco CCNP Enterprise 350-401 ENCOR EEM Applets and Orchestration Models Practice Test
Topic 21 covers eem applets and orchestration models for the Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise Core certification. These original practice questions apply the verified 350-401 objectives to practical decisions and troubleshooting. Select one answer unless a fixed number is requested. For broader preparation, visit the Cisco 350-401 ENCOR Exam Dumps page. Each option includes an explanation of the relevant behavior and scenario constraints.
Question 1
An EEM applet should run only when IOS XE logs that `GigabitEthernet1/0/24` changed state to down. Which event detector is the best fit?
Correct Answer: E
Correct Answer
Answer E is correct because The syslog event detector can trigger an applet when a regular-expression pattern matches the targeted message.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because Controller task status does not directly register a local IOS XE EEM syslog trigger.
Answer B is incorrect because A YANG key identifies modeled data and is not an EEM event detector.
Answer C is incorrect because Manual invocation does not satisfy the requirement for automatic reaction to the syslog event.
Answer D is incorrect because A periodic timer does not inherently correlate execution with the specific interface-down event in the requirement.
Question 2
A router must capture `show processes cpu` every five minutes even when no fault occurs. Which EEM event mechanism is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer
Answer A is correct because A watchdog or recurring timer can trigger an applet periodically without waiting for a separate fault message.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because Manual invocation defeats the requirement for unattended periodic collection.
Answer C is incorrect because An HTTP resource error is not the local periodic trigger requested for the router.
Answer D is incorrect because A syslog detector depends on a matching message and cannot guarantee execution every five minutes.
Answer E is incorrect because Interface changes are unrelated to the fixed periodic schedule in the requirement.
Question 3
An EEM applet uses `event syslog pattern “DOWN”` and unexpectedly triggers for unrelated tunnel, routing, and interface messages. What should be corrected first?
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer
Answer C is correct because A broad pattern can match many unrelated syslog lines; adding specific context reduces false triggering.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because Authorization affects action execution and does not make the triggering pattern more selective.
Answer B is incorrect because Renaming interfaces does not address the event detector’s unspecific pattern logic.
Answer D is incorrect because Time synchronization does not correct an overly broad regular-expression match condition.
Answer E is incorrect because Changing orchestration architecture is unnecessary for a local pattern-selection defect.
Question 4
Two EEM applets perform the same diagnostic actions. Applet A uses an automatic syslog detector; Applet B uses `event none`. Which TWO statements correctly distinguish their invocation? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: A, C
Correct Answers
Answer A is correct because A manual EEM applet has no autonomous event trigger and therefore must be invoked explicitly.
Answer C is correct because A registered syslog event detector automatically triggers the applet when its pattern matches.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because Without a syslog detector, generic syslog activity does not automatically launch the manual applet.
Answer D is incorrect because EEM is an IOS XE feature and does not depend on a Puppet agent for local execution.
Answer E is incorrect because A manual event and a recurring timer are different EEM event-registration mechanisms.
Answer F is incorrect because EEM policy configuration can be changed or removed; registration does not make the applet permanent.
Question 5
A syslog-triggered applet must include the affected interface in its diagnostic output. Which information should the design preserve for the action stage?
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer
Answer B is correct because The action needs event-specific data so it can collect diagnostics for the interface that actually triggered the policy.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because Random selection breaks the required correlation between the event and the diagnostic target.
Answer C is incorrect because External inventory pagination does not provide the local triggering interface context required by the action.
Answer D is incorrect because The registration time does not identify which interface generated the current event.
Answer E is incorrect because Device identity does not substitute for the specific interface value needed by the troubleshooting action.
Question 6
An EEM applet must enter global configuration mode and shut a test interface after a controlled trigger. Which sequence is valid when the EEM CLI session starts below configuration mode?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because Configuration commands require the CLI session to reach the necessary privilege and configuration modes in the proper order.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because YANG schema keys have no role in sequencing EEM CLI commands through EXEC and configuration modes.
Answer B is incorrect because EEM CLI actions use the device CLI session and must satisfy its mode and authorization requirements.
Answer C is incorrect because The event statement registers the trigger; it is not a post-change CLI action.
Answer E is incorrect because The action should establish the required mode before sending commands that depend on it.
Question 7
An EEM applet may shut an interface when a fault is detected, but the operations team requires evidence of the prechange state. Which TWO actions should occur before the shutdown? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: B, C
Correct Answers
Answer B is correct because An explicit audit record helps correlate the trigger with the subsequent disruptive action.
Answer C is correct because Capturing evidence before disruption preserves the information needed to understand the original failure condition.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because A reboot would destroy useful transient state and is more disruptive than the required bounded interface action.
Answer D is incorrect because Deleting evidence before a disruptive action undermines the stated troubleshooting and audit requirement.
Answer E is incorrect because Disabling registration does not satisfy the need to capture evidence for the action already being executed.
Answer F is incorrect because Renaming the device is unrelated to preserving the required technical evidence before remediation.
Question 8
An EEM applet runs `show ip interface brief` and the requirement is to preserve the command output for later troubleshooting. Which design is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer
Answer C is correct because The output must be explicitly captured or transmitted; merely executing the show command does not guarantee later persistence.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because An unrelated HTTP error cannot provide the requested local interface-state output.
Answer B is incorrect because Time synchronization adds timestamps but does not store arbitrary CLI command output.
Answer D is incorrect because The event detector decides when to run and does not replace capturing the command’s actual result.
Answer E is incorrect because CLI command output is not automatically written into startup configuration for later analysis.
Question 9
An applet receives event data indicating `severity=critical` or `severity=warning`. Only critical events should trigger a configuration rollback; warnings should collect diagnostics only. What construct should the applet use?
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer
Answer B is correct because Conditional EEM logic can choose different action sequences based on the supplied event data.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because EEM can use event information to influence local action logic without requiring a controller inventory query.
Answer C is incorrect because Time synchronization has no role in changing the severity classification supplied by the event.
Answer D is incorrect because External orchestration is unnecessary for a simple bounded conditional branch inside the EEM policy.
Answer E is incorrect because Making the trigger broader would remove the required distinction between warning and critical handling.
Question 10
An applet lists actions `1.0`, `2.0`, `10.0`, and `3.0`. The author intended the final cleanup command to run last, but labeled it `2.0`. What should be corrected?
Correct Answer: E
Correct Answer
Answer E is correct because EEM action labels determine action ordering, so the labels must reflect the intended sequence rather than their visual placement alone.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because Interface capacity has no relationship to EEM action ordering.
Answer B is incorrect because The applet name identifies the policy and does not override the configured action label sequence.
Answer C is incorrect because EEM action labels are local policy sequence values and are unrelated to external controller task identifiers.
Answer D is incorrect because The trigger determines when the applet starts, while action labels determine the order of its actions.
Question 11
An applet triggers on syslog text `LINK-RESET` and one of its own actions writes `LINK-RESET remediation started` to syslog. The applet repeatedly retriggers itself. What is the best correction?
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer
Answer B is correct because The current action creates the same text that the detector matches, producing a recursive trigger loop.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because Changing representation does not address the causal loop between the emitted syslog text and the event pattern.
Answer C is incorrect because A timer setting cannot correct recursion created by a syslog event matching the applet’s own message.
Answer D is incorrect because Additional matching messages would create more trigger opportunities and worsen the recursive behavior.
Answer E is incorrect because Suppressing all logging is unnecessarily broad; the safer fix is to remove the self-matching condition.
Question 12
An EEM applet triggers correctly but its CLI action receives an authorization failure when attempting a privileged configuration command. Which TWO checks are most relevant? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: E, F
Correct Answers
Answer E is correct because Authorization bypass and session identity settings affect whether privileged actions are permitted and should be deliberate.
Answer F is correct because EEM CLI actions are subject to session identity and authorization unless an explicitly supported bypass is configured.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because Trigger severity does not grant additional CLI privilege to the action session.
Answer B is incorrect because Event registration and action authorization are separate stages; a policy can trigger and still fail during command execution.
Answer C is incorrect because Policy naming does not confer AAA privilege or command authorization.
Answer D is incorrect because Controller pagination has no relationship to local EEM CLI authorization.
Question 13
A flapping interface generates five matching events within seconds. Each applet instance tries to change the same route, causing conflicting updates. Which TWO design controls best address the concurrency risk? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: A, E
Correct Answers
Answer A is correct because Controlling duplicate invocations can prevent a burst of events from launching overlapping configuration actions.
Answer E is correct because Idempotent state checks reduce conflicting repeated configuration when multiple events arrive close together.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because Action labels define policy ordering and do not provide a safe concurrency mechanism across separate applet instances.
Answer C is incorrect because Faster execution does not eliminate conflicting state changes and removes safeguards that could detect them.
Answer D is incorrect because Repeated process restarts would be disruptive and do not solve the underlying duplicate-trigger control problem.
Answer F is incorrect because Broader matching increases event volume and therefore makes the concurrency problem worse.
Question 14
`show event manager policy registered` confirms an applet is registered, but the expected file is never created when the event occurs. Which conclusion is most accurate?
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer
Answer B is correct because EEM registration and runtime action success are separate states, so command, authorization, or destination failures can still occur.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because The symptoms do not justify replacing the mechanism before checking the local action execution evidence.
Answer C is incorrect because The event may have triggered while a subsequent action failed; registration alone cannot distinguish those stages.
Answer D is incorrect because Runtime conditions and authorization can cause actions to fail even though the policy is registered.
Answer E is incorrect because A missing output artifact does not by itself identify whether the trigger, action, permission, or storage destination failed.
Question 15
An applet temporarily disables an unstable interface for 60 seconds and then re-enables it. What should the validation plan verify after the automatic change?
Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer
Answer A is correct because A bounded remediation must verify both restoration of the changed resource and absence of a harmful repeated-trigger condition.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because An unrelated controller response does not prove local interface and service recovery after EEM actions.
Answer C is incorrect because Evidence of the disruptive action alone does not prove recovery or that the automation stopped safely.
Answer D is incorrect because Hostname changes are unrelated to validating the bounded interface remediation.
Answer E is incorrect because Registration does not establish that recovery actions executed or that the service returned to the intended condition.
Question 16
A configuration-management platform uses a resident service on every managed server. The central system sends desired state to that service, which applies changes locally. Which architecture characteristic is present?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because A resident process on each managed node is the defining operational dependency of this agent-based design.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because A software agent performs management actions, whereas YANG defines modeled data structure.
Answer B is incorrect because The local service actively applies configuration and therefore is more than a read-only remote query.
Answer C is incorrect because General orchestration agents are separate from the IOS XE EEM subsystem.
Answer E is incorrect because Central coordination can exist in either model; the resident managed-node service makes this architecture agent-based.
Question 17
A team compares Puppet-style agents with an Ansible-style network workflow. Which TWO distinctions are accurate for the stated models? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: C, E
Correct Answers
Answer C is correct because Puppet’s agent-server model uses a local agent that retrieves and applies a compiled catalog and reports results.
Answer E is correct because Ansible network modules execute from the control node and communicate remotely rather than requiring the same resident agent on each network device.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because Resident agents introduce software and trust relationships that themselves require lifecycle management.
Answer B is incorrect because Remote execution still depends on a usable management transport and credentials to the managed device.
Answer D is incorrect because Execution architecture cannot prove the operational correctness or business suitability of a requested configuration.
Answer F is incorrect because Agentless network automation is specifically designed to avoid installing such a resident automation agent on each network device.
Question 18
An enterprise manages 18,000 servers with resident orchestration agents. A critical agent vulnerability requires a new version across the fleet. Which operational cost is most directly exposed by this event?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because A large resident-agent fleet creates patching, compatibility, deployment, and version-management work across the endpoints.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because Removing transport security would introduce risk and does not solve a software vulnerability in the agent.
Answer B is incorrect because Routing can affect connectivity but does not remove the endpoint software lifecycle requirement in the scenario.
Answer C is incorrect because The stated vulnerability is in the resident agent, so managed-node software must be addressed.
Answer E is incorrect because YANG schemas on network devices do not replace deployment of a corrected agent package to servers.
Question 19
A disconnected industrial server must continue enforcing its latest desired state and running local remediation during a four-hour loss of WAN connectivity. Which model characteristic best supports that local-execution requirement?
Correct Answer: E
Correct Answer
Answer E is correct because Local execution can continue without a live push session when the agent and required policy are already present on the node.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because Pagination affects API result size and does not provide local execution during loss of WAN reachability.
Answer B is incorrect because A central push cannot reach the disconnected node while the required management path is unavailable.
Answer C is incorrect because An event on a different device cannot substitute for the local execution required on the disconnected server.
Answer D is incorrect because Reading central inventory does not execute remediation on a node that cannot currently be reached.
Question 20
A network team considers an orchestration platform that requires installing its own runtime agent directly on every managed device. Half of the routers do not support that runtime. What is the decisive architectural constraint?
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer
Answer C is correct because A mandatory local agent cannot run on endpoints that lack the required runtime or installation support.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because Central control does not override managed-device platform restrictions on installing and running software.
Answer B is incorrect because Controller task correlation values have no relationship to local runtime compatibility.
Answer D is incorrect because Routing policy does not create software execution support on the managed platform.
Answer E is incorrect because Network platforms often restrict local software environments, and the scenario explicitly states the required runtime is unsupported.
Question 21
An agentless network automation system runs modules on a control node and manages routers remotely. Which TWO prerequisites are still required for a typical push operation? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: A, E
Correct Answers
Answer A is correct because Agentless does not mean connectionless; the control node still needs a protocol path to reach the device.
Answer E is correct because Remote execution still must authenticate and obtain the privileges required for the requested operation.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because EEM can automate local events but is not required for every command issued by an external agentless platform.
Answer C is incorrect because A Puppet catalog is specific to that agent-based workflow and is not a generic prerequisite for agentless network automation.
Answer D is incorrect because Management connectivity is required, but user traffic does not have to traverse the automation control node.
Answer F is incorrect because Agentless network automation specifically avoids requiring that orchestration agent on each target device.
Question 22
A control node uses one highly privileged credential to push configuration to 3,000 routers. What security/operational concern should the design address first?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because A single credential usable across thousands of targets concentrates privilege and therefore increases the impact of theft or misuse.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because Embedding reusable privileged secrets in plain text increases exposure and conflicts with secure credential management.
Answer B is incorrect because Trust in the control node does not justify removing authentication from managed network interfaces.
Answer C is incorrect because Pagination can affect data retrieval but does not address the stated credential concentration risk.
Answer E is incorrect because Remote management sessions still require an authentication mechanism and appropriate privilege on the targets.
Question 23
A branch router remains healthy and forwards user traffic, but a WAN ACL blocks SSH and HTTPS from the automation control node. An agentless push fails. What is the best explanation?
Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer
Answer A is correct because Agentless remote execution requires the control node to reach a supported management transport on the target.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because The stated ACL is the management-path constraint, and renaming the device does not remove that filtering.
Answer C is incorrect because A device can forward traffic while a management ACL separately blocks the control node’s remote-access protocols.
Answer D is incorrect because Introducing an unsupported or absent agent is not a valid explanation for the current agentless failure.
Answer E is incorrect because Network automation modules can execute on the control node and therefore need a remote connection to operate on the target.
Question 24
A playbook reports success after applying an intended VLAN configuration to a switch. Which statement best describes what agentless architecture alone guarantees?
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer
Answer B is correct because Agentless describes how automation reaches and executes against targets, not a universal guarantee that configuration can never drift afterward.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because Configuration application success is narrower than service-level validation across dependent systems.
Answer C is incorrect because Automation execution does not freeze platform schemas or model revisions.
Answer D is incorrect because Agentless network automation specifically avoids requiring such a resident automation agent on the managed switch.
Answer E is incorrect because Remote execution does not prevent later manual, automated, or failure-driven configuration changes.
Question 25
A company has 200 remote sites. Sites may be disconnected for hours during maintenance. Some server workloads can run resident management agents, but network routers cannot. Which THREE observations should guide the orchestration design? Choose THREE.
Correct Answers: A, C, F
Correct Answers
Answer A is correct because Local agent execution can reduce dependence on a live push session when required policy and runtime remain available on the server.
Answer C is correct because Endpoint runtime constraints can make agentless SSH/HTTPS-style management the practical option for network devices.
Answer F is correct because Remote execution depends on management reachability and therefore cannot complete while the site is unreachable.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because Resident agents still require trust, software maintenance, and secure communication with their management infrastructure.
Answer D is incorrect because Without a reachable remote transport, a central agentless push cannot execute on the isolated target devices.
Answer E is incorrect because The scenario explicitly presents different endpoint capabilities, so a mixed architecture can be more appropriate than forcing an unsupported model.
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