PMI PMP Organizational Change and Adoption Practice Test
Topic 26 covers organizational change and adoption for the PMI Project Management Professional (PMP) certification. These original scenarios apply the July 2026 exam objectives across predictive, agile and hybrid projects. Use the stated constraints to select one answer unless the question specifies otherwise. For broader preparation, visit the PMP Exam Dumps page. Each option has an explanation of its role in the decision.
Question 1
A new purchasing system is technically ready. Buyers can explain why it is needed and passed a knowledge test, but cannot complete a realistic purchase without coaching. What should the change lead arrange before broad rollout?
Correct Answer: E
Correct Answer
Answer E is correct because the observed gap is performing the work, despite understanding the purpose and procedures. Realistic practice with feedback addresses execution capability before users depend on the system.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because temporary support may help users, but the existing test did not demonstrate realistic task performance. Using its pass rate as the gate leaves the observed capability gap unverified before broad rollout.
Answer B is incorrect because a knowledge test has already been passed, while practical performance remains weak. Another written examination would not establish independent task execution.
Answer C is incorrect because clearer guidance may be useful, but the team must still demonstrate that it resolves the practical errors. The evidence calls for supported realistic practice, not an assumption based on a document change.
Answer D is incorrect because the buyers already understand the reason for change. Repeating that message does not directly address their demonstrated difficulty completing a purchase.
Question 2
A sales team understands a new shared customer process but keeps private spreadsheets. Its bonus scheme rewards individual account ownership, and managers still request spreadsheet reports. What should the project manager address first?
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer
Answer C is correct because the environment rewards and requests the behavior the change is meant to replace. Adoption support must address those signals rather than assume the issue is lack of awareness.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because demonstrations can build practical confidence, but users already understand the process. They would still be rewarded for individual ownership and asked for spreadsheets, so the primary contradiction remains.
Answer B is incorrect because the team already understands the process. Editing introductory material would leave the bonus scheme and managerial requests that favor spreadsheets intact.
Answer D is incorrect because a login target can generate visible use without changing where account work is performed or rewarded. It adds a metric while preserving the operating expectations that favor the old behavior.
Answer E is incorrect because import may reduce duplicate entry but preserves the private ownership and management reporting behaviors driving nonadoption. The incentive conflict must be addressed before a tool workaround can establish a shared process.
Question 3
A hospital scheduling project plans a pilot in one unit before expanding. The proposed pilot includes only daytime administrators, although nurses on night shifts will perform many scheduling tasks after rollout. Which TWO changes strengthen the pilot? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: A, F
Correct Answers
Answer A is correct because the planned rollout includes a work setting absent from the pilot. Testing that setting can reveal access, timing and workflow barriers that daytime administrators would not encounter.
Answer F is correct because group-level evidence can expose readiness gaps hidden by an overall average. Both independent completion and support needs inform whether expansion is practical.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because the night-shift tasks and conditions have not been tested. Finalizing materials first could encode daytime assumptions and leave the intended users’ actual readiness barriers undiscovered.
Answer C is incorrect because design participants may have knowledge and motivation that typical users lack. Restricting the pilot to them would further weaken evidence about broad adoption.
Answer D is incorrect because an overall result from daytime administrators does not establish performance for a missing user group. The expansion decision needs evidence from night-shift nurses and their scheduling tasks.
Answer E is incorrect because a login does not demonstrate completion of scheduling work. Aggregation would also conceal the untested night-shift population.
Question 4
Employees support a new approval workflow and know its steps. Half cannot access the approval screen because their roles were migrated incorrectly. What is the most appropriate immediate response?
Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer
Answer A is correct because the barrier is a demonstrated configuration problem, not willingness or knowledge. Restoring appropriate permissions and checking task execution directly addresses the inability to use the workflow.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because supervisor handling may provide temporary continuity, but it leaves half the users unable to perform their assigned tasks. The known role-migration defect should be corrected rather than deferred as the adoption solution.
Answer C is incorrect because knowledge is not the stated problem, and the role migration defect is already known. Training first would delay removal of the actual access barrier.
Answer D is incorrect because the affected employees already support the change. Executive messaging cannot grant the missing permissions required to complete the workflow.
Answer E is incorrect because a blanket role may grant inappropriate authority and obscures the intended permissions. Correcting the affected authorized roles addresses the specific defect with a verifiable task-level result.
Question 5
A change sponsor asks for one number proving that a new case-management process has been adopted. Which metric is most relevant to the intended behavior?
Correct Answer: E
Correct Answer
Answer E is correct because this measures actual use for the work in scope and includes the required completion behavior. The denominator and completion condition make it more informative than simple exposure to the system.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because speed can reveal a benefit or usability problem, but it excludes eligible cases completed elsewhere. It cannot establish the proportion of work that has adopted the required process.
Answer B is incorrect because case initiation is a stronger measure than message exposure, but users may still finish through the legacy route. The intended behavior includes completion and required records, so starts alone overstate adoption.
Answer C is incorrect because preference may affect willingness to adopt, but positive sentiment does not demonstrate the required operational behavior. Completion of eligible cases is the direct measure requested.
Answer D is incorrect because simulation measures readiness and practical capability. It does not establish that eligible live cases are actually being processed through the new workflow.
Question 6
A warehouse rollout shows 90% completion of system training, but supervisors continue assigning work through paper lists. Workers say they must follow their supervisors. Which TWO actions directly support adoption? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: C, F
Correct Answers
Answer C is correct because supported use in the supervisors’ actual role can reveal capability and workflow barriers. It also makes their operating behavior consistent with the change expected of workers.
Answer F is correct because workers are receiving operational direction that sustains the old process. Clarifying what supervisors should do addresses the immediate source of contradictory behavior.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because some additional training may still be needed, but the stated barrier is supervisors’ instructions. Higher worker attendance alone would not replace those instructions.
Answer B is incorrect because removing the legacy channel can support cutover after readiness is established. Here it would remove a functioning route while leaving the supervisors’ capability and conflicting directions unresolved.
Answer D is incorrect because logins do not resolve which system workers are instructed to use for assignments. This could add visible activity while supervisors continue to operate through paper lists.
Answer E is incorrect because central re-entry may improve the electronic record, but it conceals rather than establishes supervisory adoption. It adds a continuing dependency instead of changing the day-to-day assignment behavior.
Question 7
Three major changes will reach the same finance team in one month. Each project separately assumes the team can attend two days of training and provide daily transition support. What should the portfolio-facing project manager bring to the sponsors?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because the individual plans compete for the same people during the same period. A shared view makes the cumulative demand visible and supports an authorized decision on timing or support.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because technical readiness is relevant, but it does not decide which use of the shared team creates the most value. The sponsors need the combined demands and sequencing consequences.
Answer B is incorrect because some content may be shared, but combining distinct training does not automatically reduce the required effort. Without checking the learning and support needs, the plan could understate the team’s real demand.
Answer C is incorrect because separate overtime approvals still miss the combined workload on the same finance team. Sustainable capacity and priority tradeoffs need to be considered together rather than assumed within three independent plans.
Answer E is incorrect because individual completeness does not establish feasibility when the plans overlap. The shared team’s total demand is the unresolved constraint.
Question 8
A regional office resists a standardized intake process because its customers need an interpreter before completing the mandatory questions. The global process assumes immediate completion. What should the change team do next?
Correct Answer: E
Correct Answer
Answer E is correct because the resistance points to a concrete operating need. A variant can retain the process objective while testing whether the local access requirement can be met.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because a separate process may add maintenance and integration costs unnecessarily. The known issue may be resolved through interpretation while preserving the common information requirement.
Answer B is incorrect because provisional staff guesses do not replace informed customer answers. This risks inaccurate records and avoids the actual language-access need that the proposed variant should address.
Answer C is incorrect because the barrier is customer access to the questions, not simply staff familiarity with the form. Speed training does not establish that customers can provide accurate required information without interpretation.
Answer D is incorrect because this may change when required information must be available and whether acceptance is valid. A local variant should preserve the requirement’s purpose rather than assume deferred collection is equivalent.
Question 9
A sponsor wants an early win for a service transformation. Which result is the strongest candidate for communicating credible progress?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because the result reflects a user-relevant outcome and can be supported with evidence. Stating the pilot boundary avoids implying that the benefit has already been achieved everywhere.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because on-time deployment is a meaningful delivery milestone, but it does not show improved service. The verified reduction in repeat visits provides a more direct early transformation outcome.
Answer B is incorrect because a credible forecast is useful for planning, but it is not an achieved early result. The pilot’s verified outcome is stronger evidence for communicating progress already made.
Answer C is incorrect because the raw count may decline because fewer customers were served. Without a comparable denominator, it cannot distinguish better service from reduced activity as clearly as the verified pilot result.
Answer E is incorrect because those scores may show enthusiasm among participants with unusual familiarity or motivation. A measured customer-service outcome with its scope stated is stronger evidence of achieved progress.
Question 10
An organization uses local change champions across 12 sites. Which THREE responsibilities best help the network support adoption? Choose THREE.
Correct Answers: A, B, F
Correct Answers
Answer A is correct because visible local practice and clear support routes help people perform the new work. Champions need not claim authority beyond their assigned role to provide this help.
Answer B is correct because champions can identify conditions that a central team may not see. A defined route lets those observations influence fixes and rollout decisions.
Answer F is correct because credible examples can show users what has worked while preserving context. Sharing conditions reduces the risk of treating every local result as universally transferable.
Incorrect Answers
Answer C is incorrect because champions can recommend support and identify workload needs, but they do not automatically control staffing authority. Accountable managers must authorize changes to their people’s commitments.
Answer D is incorrect because local action can be helpful, but unresolved obstacles are important evidence for central support and sequencing. Reporting only completed fixes hides conditions that the network should surface in time.
Answer E is incorrect because champions can convey local needs, but prioritization commits delivery capacity and may affect other sites. It must remain with the assigned product decision owner rather than become a local promise.
Question 11
A hybrid automation pilot removes most manual routing work from senior coordinators. The coordinators understand the customer benefit and can operate the new system independently, but resist adoption because their main responsibilities will disappear. Complex exception work still needs owners; functional managers can redesign roles, while the project lead cannot guarantee employment terms. What intervention should the change lead prioritize?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because the barrier is a confirmed loss of meaningful work, not understanding or technical capability. Assigning the necessary exception work through valid role decisions gives coordinators a credible future contribution and a supported transition.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because a target may force visible transactions, but it does not resolve the legitimate interest limiting willingness. The available exception responsibilities provide a more substantive route to adoption than pressure alone.
Answer B is incorrect because the coordinators already understand the benefit and can operate the system. Further demonstrations leave the substantiated concern about their own role unaddressed, so they are unlikely to create willingness to adopt.
Answer C is incorrect because the work is genuinely being removed, so the concern cannot be dismissed as misunderstanding. Peer advocacy should follow a credible plan for the unresolved future responsibilities, not substitute for one.
Answer E is incorrect because the project lead lacks authority to make employment guarantees. An unsupported assurance may temporarily reduce concern but cannot replace an authorized role and transition agreement.
Question 12
A rollout dashboard reports 80% adoption: 800 of 1,000 employees used the system. Only 400 employees currently perform the eligible task, and 300 of those completed it through the new workflow. What is the relevant task-based adoption rate?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because the measure should reflect the people currently expected to perform the task. Dividing successful eligible users by the eligible population gives 300/400, or 75%.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because the ratio of 100 to 400 is the nonadoption share, not the adoption rate requested. The complementary completed-task share is 300 divided by 400, or 75%.
Answer B is incorrect because that denominator includes 600 employees who do not currently perform the task. It understates adoption within the population actually expected to use the workflow.
Answer C is incorrect because system users are not the defined eligible population. This ratio answers a different question about visitors rather than expected task performers.
Answer E is incorrect because access by employees outside the eligible task population does not establish adoption of that task. This is the reported broad usage rate, not the relevant workflow rate.
Question 13
After a successful pilot, management wants to switch off the old workflow. A remote site still lacks reliable connectivity, and the approved rollout criterion requires every site to have a tested fallback. What should the project manager recommend?
Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer
Answer A is correct because the site has a specific readiness gap against an approved criterion. Testing its fallback addresses continuity without treating the pilot’s success elsewhere as evidence for this location.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because the stated criterion requires a tested fallback, not a permanent upgrade before all sites proceed. Other sites may be ready, so a blanket delay ignores possible staged cutover and continuity options.
Answer C is incorrect because a design is preparation but does not meet the explicit tested-fallback criterion. The remote site’s connectivity conditions must be exercised before relying on the arrangement.
Answer D is incorrect because the pilot did not resolve the remote site’s connectivity condition. The approved every-site fallback criterion remains unmet.
Answer E is incorrect because central handling could become a fallback, but its capacity, data flow and responsibilities need validation. Selecting the route does not satisfy the requirement for a tested continuity arrangement.
Question 14
A new analytics tool includes AI-generated recommendations. The organization’s policy requires a qualified employee to review recommendations before customer action. Which TWO adoption measures are appropriate? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: A, B
Correct Answers
Answer A is correct because users need to perform the review that the policy requires, including situations where the recommendation is flawed. Practical cases can reveal whether that responsibility is understood and executable.
Answer B is correct because this tests the mandated behavior in the operational sequence. Tool usage alone would not show whether employees preserve the required human review.
Incorrect Answers
Answer C is incorrect because a retrospective audit may support assurance, but it cannot establish that review occurred in the required sequence. The policy specifically requires qualified review before action.
Answer D is incorrect because model accuracy is relevant to tool performance, but it does not show that employees perform the mandated human review. Adoption needs evidence of the actual authorized workflow.
Answer E is incorrect because correct cases can teach the workflow, but they do not test whether users detect and handle flawed recommendations. Certification based only on them leaves the key judgment required for qualified review untested.
Answer F is incorrect because a low override rate could reflect accurate recommendations or uncritical acceptance. It does not demonstrate the qualified review required before each customer action and can discourage justified challenge.
Question 15
A field-service team created a workaround because the new application cannot capture an equipment identifier used at remote sites. The workaround duplicates records. What should the change team investigate first?
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer
Answer C is correct because the workaround responds to a concrete unmet need and creates a data consequence. Understanding that need supports an authorized design or process fix rather than merely suppressing the visible symptom.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because channel enforcement can support an agreed process, but the application cannot yet record necessary information. Removing the workaround first may interrupt required field work rather than solve the adoption barrier.
Answer B is incorrect because standard-site examples do not add the missing remote identifier or explain how to preserve it. The gap is a functional requirement in the actual workflow, not general familiarity with data entry.
Answer D is incorrect because the metric is useful for monitoring, but the cause is already visible and affects current work. Measurement alone postpones investigation of the missing capability rather than addressing it.
Answer E is incorrect because reconciliation can contain some consequences but does not establish how remote equipment identifiers should be captured. A recurring manual cleanup leaves the unmet field-work requirement unresolved.
Question 16
A project trained all current staff on a revised control process. The operation has high staff turnover, and new hires will arrive after project closure. Which TWO arrangements best protect continued adoption? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: A, E
Correct Answers
Answer A is correct because future hires need to learn the current workflow through a continuing organizational mechanism. A one-time project training event cannot cover people who join later.
Answer E is correct because ongoing ownership allows material to remain aligned with actual roles and process changes. Without it, onboarding can gradually teach an obsolete version.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because awareness explains why the process matters, but future users also need role-specific knowledge and practice. Reusing the introductory session alone does not cover those requirements.
Answer C is incorrect because attendance confirms exposure to training, not whether the revised control is performed correctly in operation. Ongoing capability and process evidence remain necessary after onboarding.
Answer D is incorrect because a recording can be a useful resource, but process and role changes can make it obsolete. Sustained adoption requires a maintained onboarding route rather than a static artifact alone.
Answer F is incorrect because peer support can help, but experienced staff may teach different or outdated variations. The operation needs current role-based guidance and a way to verify practical capability.
Question 17
A measured pilot shows that a missing integration adds 20 minutes to each of 120 weekly cases. Staff support the change and can perform the workflow, but the receiving team has no spare capacity. The integration fix will take two months; sponsors can fund temporary support or approve phased rollout. What should the change lead bring to the readiness decision?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because the additional work is 120 cases multiplied by 20 minutes, totaling 2,400 minutes, or 40 hours, each week. With no spare capacity, adoption needs an explicit capacity or sequencing decision rather than another diagnosis of motivation.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because this confuses minutes per case with total weekly hours. At 120 cases, the additional effort is 40 hours, so the proposed support covers only half the gap.
Answer B is incorrect because awareness does not supply the 40 additional weekly hours required by the verified workflow. Keeping the same plan would leave the demonstrated capacity shortfall unresolved.
Answer C is incorrect because the extra effort has already been measured and no spare capacity exists. Waiting for a backlog repeats the assessment through avoidable disruption instead of making the capacity decision now.
Answer E is incorrect because users may become faster with experience, but no measured gain offsets the missing integration. Planning against an unverified reduction would treat hoped-for capacity as available capacity.
Question 18
A geographically dispersed organization offers a mandatory live training session at a time when one region is off duty. That region also needs captions. What change best supports comparable readiness?
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer
Answer C is correct because equivalent learning can be delivered through different schedules or formats while retaining the same required capability. This addresses both the timing and caption needs.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because the time change resolves only one of the two known barriers. The region also needs captions, so a schedule adjustment alone does not provide meaningful access.
Answer B is incorrect because a local summary may help, but it can omit task detail and practice needed for readiness. The delivery format can vary only if the required capability and support are preserved.
Answer D is incorrect because the recording would improve access to information, but it does not establish the required practical capability or give users a route to resolve difficulties. Comparable readiness needs equivalent practice and support as well.
Answer E is incorrect because written guidance can be part of a suitable route, but self-report alone does not demonstrate performance. The aim is comparable capability, not only receipt of accessible material.
Question 19
A reliable new case workflow includes a required validation step. Staff demonstrated the skill during training, but supervisors reward raw case closures and users now skip validation to improve their rankings. No legacy process is involved. What reinforcement change best supports sustained correct adoption?
Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer
Answer A is correct because the current volume reward encourages skipping a necessary step despite adequate capability and a reliable system. Aligning reinforcement with complete quality-assured work makes the desired behavior consistent with how performance is recognized.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B is incorrect because reminders make the step visible, but they still compete with a performance system rewarding a different behavior. Reinforcement should count correctly completed work, not preserve the contradictory ranking.
Answer C is incorrect because the problem is what performance review rewards, not the existence of feedback. Removing review would leave less support for correct use when expectations can be aligned now.
Answer D is incorrect because users have demonstrated that they can perform the check. Repeating instruction does not alter the incentive to skip it when rewards depend on raw closures.
Answer E is incorrect because a higher volume target can strengthen the pressure already causing skipped checks. It does not resolve the mismatch between required behavior and the reward system.
Question 20
Two departments will share a new process. One can change local work instructions; the other needs approval from a corporate control owner. Which TWO planning actions fit these conditions? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: A, B
Correct Answers
Answer A is correct because the second department needs that approval before its local instructions can change. Placing it in the sequence makes the dependency visible and manageable.
Answer B is correct because different authorities affect when and how each department can adopt the process. Making those differences explicit prevents the rollout plan from assuming equal freedom to change.
Incorrect Answers
Answer C is incorrect because technical configuration approval may be relevant, but the stated dependency concerns changes to the department’s instructions. Reviewing the wrong decision object does not satisfy that requirement.
Answer D is incorrect because the first department’s flexibility does not transfer to the second. A pilot is still a process change if it alters controlled instructions, so the second department’s required approval must be accounted for.
Answer E is incorrect because a common date alone does not make the required corporate decision achievable. The plan must account for the different path to readiness.
Answer F is incorrect because the stated authority arrangement requires a separate control owner’s decision. Departmental enthusiasm does not remove that dependency.
Question 21
A pilot user group says it likes a new process, but observed completion requires the project team to intervene on most cases. The planned rollout will have no dedicated project support. What is the strongest readiness concern?
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer
Answer B is correct because positive sentiment does not establish independent performance. Frequent project-team intervention means the pilot conditions differ materially from the planned rollout.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because intervention during learning can be expected, but its continuing frequency matters when the rollout has no dedicated support. It cannot be excluded from the feasibility of the future operating arrangement.
Answer C is incorrect because those cases can help diagnose what users already do independently, but excluding assisted cases would understate the support the rollout still needs. Readiness must account for the full representative workload.
Answer D is incorrect because preference does not establish capability under the future support arrangement. The observed intervention dependency remains a readiness gap.
Answer E is incorrect because more sentiment data does not resolve the observed need for project-team intervention. The readiness gap concerns actual operation with a different support model.
Question 22
A manager wants to explain why a new workflow is necessary. Staff currently believe the change only serves a software vendor, although the business case addresses repeated customer delays. Which message is most useful?
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer
Answer B is correct because the gap concerns understanding the business reason for the change. Connecting the workflow to a concrete customer problem provides relevant context without promising unsupported results.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because features may describe the product but do not necessarily explain the organization’s reason for changing. The customer-delay problem is the missing context.
Answer C is incorrect because these may explain urgency, but they do not answer the belief that the change serves only the vendor. Staff need the link between their workflow and the customer-delay problem in the business case.
Answer D is incorrect because external adoption can establish credibility, but it does not explain this organization’s customer problem or how the proposed workflow addresses it. The missing awareness is local purpose, not popularity.
Answer E is incorrect because deployment is an output, whereas staff need to understand the organizational problem being addressed. A milestone narrative does not supply that connection.
Question 23
Adoption at a branch rose during a pilot but fell after the local champion transferred. The process itself has not changed. What should the change lead investigate first?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer
Answer D is correct because the timing suggests a possible reliance on the champion rather than a sustained local arrangement. Investigating that dependency can identify what the branch needs to maintain the behavior.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because additional training may help some users, but the decline is local and followed loss of one champion. Broad repetition can miss which support or reinforcement functions disappeared at that branch.
Answer B is incorrect because a replacement may help, but simply recreating a single-person arrangement can preserve the fragility. Understanding the missing responsibilities supports a sustainable local solution.
Answer C is incorrect because the process has not changed and the decline follows a personnel transition. A redesign might eventually be justified, but the immediate evidence points first to a possible support dependency.
Answer E is incorrect because the best week reflects favorable past conditions and may depend on the transferred champion. Current performance and the changed support arrangement are more relevant to diagnosing the decline.
Question 24
The executive sponsor asks whether the change program can reduce its support team after launch. Which TWO pieces of evidence are most relevant? Choose TWO.
Correct Answers: A, B
Correct Answers
Answer A is correct because support can be reduced responsibly only if continuing needs have a feasible owner. Comparing demand with receiving capacity tests that arrangement.
Answer B is correct because this indicates whether routine work can continue with the planned level of support. It directly addresses the dependency that a support reduction could expose.
Incorrect Answers
Answer C is incorrect because low tickets could reflect successful use, local unrecorded assistance or barriers to requesting help. Alone it does not establish that representative work can be completed under reduced support.
Answer D is incorrect because a scheduled support window is a planning assumption, not proof that support can be reduced. The decision needs current user capability and a feasible arrangement for remaining demand.
Answer E is incorrect because confidence is useful context but can differ from observed task performance. It does not demonstrate that the receiving operation has enough capacity for the remaining support needs.
Answer F is incorrect because installation completion is relevant to technical readiness but does not establish adoption support readiness. Users may still depend heavily on the project team.
Question 25
A company acquires another business and proposes immediate adoption of its own workflow. The acquired team has a different customer service promise that the combined business has not yet reviewed. What should happen before mandating the workflow?
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer
Answer C is correct because the combined organization has not yet decided how to handle the differing service promise. An impact assessment gives decision makers evidence before standardization creates an unintended commitment breach.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A is incorrect because a lower average cost may not hold when serving customers with a different promise. Efficiency should be compared alongside the commitments the combined business intends to retain.
Answer B is incorrect because some procedures may already be compatible with the common process. A blanket delay substitutes a fixed rule for assessment of which elements can be standardized while preserving commitments.
Answer D is incorrect because ownership may establish who can authorize change, but it does not reveal the effects on retained service promises. The business still needs an impact comparison before exercising that authority.
Answer E is incorrect because a common interface can embed timing and workflow assumptions that conflict with the service promise. Deferring that analysis may lock in avoidable rework or disruption.
Popular posts
Recent Posts
