PMI PMP Performance Measurement and Project Status Practice Test

 

Topic 18 covers performance measurement and project status for the PMI Project Management Professional (PMP) certification. These original scenarios apply the July 2026 exam objectives across predictive, agile and hybrid projects. Use the stated constraints to select one answer unless the question specifies otherwise. For broader preparation, visit the PMP Exam Dumps page. Each option has an explanation of its role in the decision.

Question 1

At a common status date, a project has planned value (PV) of 200, earned value (EV) of 160 and actual cost (AC) of 150, all in thousands. Using CPI = EV/AC and SPI = EV/PV, which status statement is supported?

1. The project is fully on track because CPI and SPI should be averaged.
2. The project is over cost because earned value is below planned value.
3. The performed work is cost-efficient, but less work has been earned than planned.
4. The project is ahead of schedule because actual spending is below planned value.
5. The project will finish 20% late because SPI is 0.80.

Correct Answer: C

 

Correct Answer

Answer C is correct because the CPI is 160/150, about 1.07, while SPI is 160/200 = 0.80. The measures describe favorable cost efficiency for accomplished work alongside a shortfall in budgeted work accomplishment.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because averaging the two ratios can hide different performance dimensions. The favorable CPI does not erase the separate shortfall in scheduled work accomplishment.

Answer B is incorrect because an EV below PV indicates a work-accomplishment shortfall against the time-phased plan. Cost efficiency compares EV with AC, which is favorable in these data.

Answer D is incorrect because an AC below PV can result from doing less work. Schedule performance compares EV with PV, and the resulting SPI of 0.80 is unfavorable.

Answer E is incorrect because a value-based SPI does not directly translate into a percentage calendar delay. The remaining network and critical path are needed to forecast completion time.

 

Question 2

A report shows EV of $420,000 and PV of $500,000. A manager describes the schedule variance as 80 days late. What correction should be made?

1. Replace PV with AC before calculating schedule variance.
2. Report 16 days late by dividing the variance by PV.
3. Report the project as 80 days early because the sign should be reversed.
4. SV is -$80,000; calendar delay requires schedule analysis.
5. Report no variance because the project still has positive earned value.

Correct Answer: D

 

Correct Answer

Answer D is correct because the calculation is SV = EV – PV = -$80,000. Traditional earned-value schedule variance uses budget units, so a separate analysis of activity timing is needed to express lateness in days.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because the difference EV – AC is cost variance. Changing the comparator would answer a different performance question and would not calculate schedule delay in days.

Answer B is incorrect because the ratio is 16%, not a duration. It quantifies the value shortfall relative to planned work and still does not identify a calendar delay.

Answer C is incorrect because reversing the sign does not correct the unit error. The data show less earned work than planned, and no conversion from dollars to days is supplied.

Answer E is incorrect because positive EV shows some work has been accomplished, not that the planned amount was achieved. The comparison with PV yields a negative schedule variance.

 

Question 3

All baseline work is finally complete three weeks after the planned finish. Cumulative EV and PV both equal the budget at completion, so the reported traditional SPI is 1.00. How should the status be interpreted?

1. Carry the last pre-completion SPI forward as the current SPI.
2. The baseline budget must have been incorrect because a late project cannot reach SPI 1.00.
3. SPI has reached 1.00, but the finish remains three weeks late.
4. SPI of 1.00 proves the project finished on its original date.
5. Use SPI alone to assign the final schedule-performance rating.

Correct Answer: C

 

Correct Answer

Answer C is correct because once all baseline work is earned and all planned value has elapsed, EV/PV becomes one. The ratio no longer preserves the calendar delay, which must remain visible through actual and baseline dates.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because a previous ratio can be retained as historical context, but it is not the current EV/PV result. Report the actual current ratio and its completion limitation alongside the three-week date variance.

Answer B is incorrect because this result follows naturally from the traditional ratio at completion. It does not by itself indicate an incorrect budget or an earning error.

Answer D is incorrect because traditional SPI measures budgeted work accomplishment relative to planned value. At completion it can equal one even when the actual completion date is later.

Answer E is incorrect because the ratio has converged to one after all baseline work is earned, so it no longer conveys the actual delay. The final schedule assessment also needs the baseline and actual finish dates.

 

Question 4

A hybrid project reports SPI of 1.08 because several high-budget noncritical packages finished early. The low-budget integration activity on the critical path is two weeks late, with no available float. What is the best status interpretation?

1. The early packages automatically transfer two weeks of float to integration.
2. Aggregate progress is favorable; integration threatens the completion forecast.
3. The report should omit SPI because any critical-path delay invalidates earned value.
4. The project is ahead of its finish date because SPI exceeds one.
5. Give the integration variance low priority because it carries little budget weight.

Correct Answer: B

 

Correct Answer

Answer B is correct because value-weighted progress can be dominated by noncritical work. The late controlling integration activity affects finish timing, so both the aggregate SPI and the network-based exposure must be reported.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because float follows network logic, not a general pool created by early spending-weighted progress. The scenario explicitly states that integration has no available float.

Answer C is incorrect because the SPI remains a valid aggregate work-accomplishment measure if its inputs are sound. Its limitation should be explained alongside the schedule evidence rather than hiding either measure.

Answer D is incorrect because the SPI does not encode each activity’s place in the dependency network. The explicit critical-path delay can threaten completion despite favorable aggregate value.

Answer E is incorrect because budget weight and schedule criticality measure different things. This low-cost activity controls completion with no available float, so its finish exposure cannot be prioritized solely by its share of earned value.

 

Question 5

A work package has a budget of 100 units and an approved weighted-milestone earning method: design approval 20%, prototype acceptance 30%, final verification 50%. Design is approved, the prototype is accepted, and final verification has started but has not passed. How much EV should be reported?

1. 75 units.
2. A value equal to actual expenditure on the package.
3. 20 units.
4. 100 units.
5. 50 units.

Correct Answer: E

 

Correct Answer

Answer E is correct because the first two completed milestones earn 20 + 30 = 50 units. Starting final verification does not earn its 50% weight because the stated milestone requires a passing result.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because this assumes half credit for starting final verification. The approved method gives no partial credit within that milestone, so such an estimate is unsupported.

Answer B is incorrect because actual cost records spending, while EV records budgeted accomplishment. The earning rule is milestone completion, not how much the team has spent.

Answer C is incorrect because this recognizes design approval but ignores the accepted prototype. Both completed milestones qualify for their specified earned-value weights.

Answer D is incorrect because the final milestone is not complete. Awarding its full weight when verification only starts would overstate accomplishment under the approved method.

 

Question 6

A short work package uses a documented 0/100 earning rule. Its owner estimates that it is 90% physically complete, but the required completion evidence is not yet available. Which EV treatment is consistent with the rule?

1. Earn 90% because physical progress always overrides the selected method.
2. Earn the amount spent and adjust it after acceptance.
3. Earn zero until the package meets the documented completion condition.
4. Earn 50% because any started task receives half credit.
5. Earn 100% because only a small amount remains.

Correct Answer: C

 

Correct Answer

Answer C is correct because the 0/100 method intentionally recognizes no intermediate credit. The owner’s progress estimate can inform the forecast, but it cannot replace the agreed earning rule.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because physical progress is useful information, but this package uses a fixed earning convention. Switching methods at the reporting date would undermine comparability and control.

Answer B is incorrect because spending is AC and may diverge from accomplishment. Using expenditure as temporary EV would obscure performance rather than apply the package’s rule.

Answer D is incorrect because that describes a different earning method. The package explicitly uses 0/100, so introducing start credit would change the agreed measurement basis.

Answer E is incorrect because near completion is not completion under 0/100. The missing evidence is precisely what prevents the package from satisfying the defined condition.

 

Question 7

A monthly report earns value for accepted supplier work completed by 30 April, but its cost file omits the related invoice because it arrives in May. The organization’s accounting policy requires estimated accruals for received work. Which actions are appropriate before interpreting CPI? Choose TWO.

1. Disclose that the accrued amount is estimated and identify how it will be reconciled to the invoice.
2. Remove the accepted work from EV even though the earning condition was met.
3. Move the supplier’s planned value into May to match invoice arrival.
4. Note that the invoice is pending and publish CPI using only the recorded cash cost.
5. Declare a permanent productivity gain because reported AC is unusually low.
6. Include the required accrual for the received work under the accounting policy.

Correct Answers: A, F

 

Correct Answers

Answer A is correct because recognizing the accrual corrects period coverage, while this separate disclosure makes the estimate uncertainty and later reconciliation visible to report users. They should not treat an estimated denominator as a final settled amount.

Answer F is correct because the cost of work represented in EV must be reflected in the same reporting period for a meaningful efficiency comparison. The stated policy provides the required treatment for the late invoice.

Incorrect Answers

Answer B is incorrect because accepted accomplishment remains valid. The stated solution is to recognize the associated accrued cost, not erase properly earned work.

Answer C is incorrect because planned value belongs to the approved time-phased work plan. Invoice timing does not authorize shifting that baseline or redefine when the work was scheduled.

Answer D is incorrect because disclosure alone does not implement the stated accrual policy. The cost of accepted work must be included in the April comparison; a note cannot substitute for the required adjustment.

Answer E is incorrect because the missing invoice explains at least part of the apparent improvement. Efficiency cannot be inferred confidently from a numerator and denominator that cover different work timing.

 

Question 8

A program earns much of its monthly value from level-of-effort coordination accounts that earn with time. Its discrete technical deliverables are slipping, but overall SPI remains near 1.00. What analysis best reveals delivery status?

1. Measure technical completion using coordination hours spent.
2. Separate the discrete-work indicators and inspect their milestone and critical-path performance.
3. Treat the stable overall SPI as proof that all technical work is on schedule.
4. Stop earning all coordination work because support activities have no value.
5. Use the unweighted mean of coordination SPI and technical SPI as the delivery indicator.

Correct Answer: B

 

Correct Answer

Answer B is correct because time-based support earning can make aggregate SPI look steady without proving technical accomplishment. Discrete measures and schedule logic expose whether the actual deliverables are progressing as required.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because support effort is not evidence that specific technical outputs are complete. The project needs objective progress measures for those deliverables.

Answer C is incorrect because level-of-effort earning can remain aligned with time even while discrete outputs are late. The aggregate ratio therefore does not support that conclusion.

Answer D is incorrect because the issue is interpretation, not necessarily improper support-account earning. Legitimate level-of-effort work can remain recorded while discrete delivery is analyzed separately.

Answer E is incorrect because equal averaging gives the two categories arbitrary influence and still blends time-based earning with discrete accomplishment. Separately examining the technical deliverables and their network position addresses the masking directly.

 

Question 9

A project’s cumulative CPI is 1.02, but its last three monthly CPIs are 0.93, 0.88 and 0.84. The current work is comparable across those months. Which interpretation best supports forecasting?

1. Replace cumulative CPI with the simple mean of the three monthly CPIs.
2. The project must finish with CPI exactly 0.84 because that is the latest observation.
3. No investigation is needed because the cumulative CPI remains above one.
4. The data prove that approved scope has increased.
5. Historical gains mask recent deterioration, so investigate the current trend when updating the forecast.

Correct Answer: E

 

Correct Answer

Answer E is correct because the cumulative result averages all prior performance and can respond slowly to change. Three worsening comparable periods provide evidence that the older favorable average may not represent remaining work.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because an unweighted mean of ratios does not equal cumulative EV divided by cumulative AC unless special weighting conditions hold. The recent trend should inform the forecast without being relabeled as the cumulative measure.

Answer B is incorrect because one current value is not a guaranteed final outcome. The trend warrants analysis of causes and remaining work rather than mechanically fixing the final result.

Answer C is incorrect because the favorable total can coexist with a worsening current process. Ignoring the recent pattern would discard relevant information about likely future performance.

Answer D is incorrect because deteriorating efficiency can have several causes, including execution issues or input timing. The ratios alone do not establish an approved scope change.

 

Question 10

A steering report labels a project “100,000 under budget” because its estimate at completion is 2.1 million and total approved funding is 2.2 million. The performance baseline BAC is 2.0 million; the other 200,000 is unallocated management reserve, excluded from BAC under the project’s EVM rules. The forecast covers the same authorized work, and no reserve transfer or baseline change has been approved. Which correction gives a valid performance comparison?

1. Deduct the 200,000 reserve from EAC and report a 1.9 million forecast against the existing baseline.
2. Report a 100,000 forecast baseline overrun and 100,000 of funding headroom as separate facts.
3. Report the 100,000 forecast overrun as the current cost variance for work already performed.
4. Transfer all reserve into BAC in the status report so that the baseline equals total funding.
5. Keep the favorable budget label because total approved funding is the applicable BAC for this report.

Correct Answer: B

 

Correct Answer

Answer B is correct because the forecast variance against BAC is 2.0 million minus 2.1 million, or 100,000 unfavorable. Total funding minus EAC is 100,000 positive, but that headroom is a different comparison. Unallocated reserve does not automatically enlarge the performance baseline or erase its forecast overrun.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because reserve is a budget provision, not a reduction in the forecast resources needed to complete the work. The estimate remains 2.1 million unless the underlying cost forecast changes; subtracting reserve would confuse funding with expected expenditure.

Answer C is incorrect because the difference BAC minus EAC is a forecast variance at completion. Current cost variance requires EV minus AC, which the stem does not supply. Relabeling the forecast gap as an incurred-work variance would answer a different performance question.

Answer D is incorrect because the report does not authorize a reserve transfer or baseline change, and the stem says neither has been approved. Any governed change must be evaluated and recorded through its applicable process; the current report should use the baseline that actually exists.

Answer E is incorrect because the scenario explicitly defines BAC as the 2.0 million performance baseline and excludes unallocated management reserve. The project may still have funding headroom, but using that larger funding total as BAC would misstate baseline performance.

 

Question 11

A hybrid project replaces its remaining manual conversion work with a validated automated method. Historical CPI describes the manual method, while a detailed estimate is now available for the new approach. Which forecast basis is most defensible?

1. Combine actual cost with the reviewed estimate for the new method.
2. Report the original baseline as the forecast because automation should remove uncertainty.
3. Apply the historical CPI unchanged because actual performance always predicts the remainder.
4. Use the supplier’s fastest demonstration as the duration and cost for all remaining work.
5. Discard all actual cost because it relates to the retired method.

Correct Answer: A

 

Correct Answer

Answer A is correct because the remaining execution method has materially changed, weakening a simple extrapolation of historical manual efficiency. A reviewed bottom-up remainder uses the evidence relevant to the work still ahead.

Incorrect Answers

Answer B is incorrect because automation does not prove that the original plan is now the best estimate. The reviewed remaining-work assessment should inform the forecast, with assumptions retained.

Answer C is incorrect because past performance is useful when its conditions remain relevant. Here the validated method change is explicit, so unqualified extrapolation would ignore material new evidence.

Answer D is incorrect because a best demonstration may not represent production conditions or all remaining tasks. The detailed reviewed estimate is more directly tied to the actual remainder.

Answer E is incorrect because those costs have already been incurred and remain part of total project performance. Only the basis for estimating future work changes.

 

Question 12

A status pack gives two forecasts for the same remaining scope. One assumes the original staffing level; the other assumes an approved specialist joining next month. The second predicts an earlier finish. Which information is needed to compare them responsibly? Choose TWO.

1. Only the earlier date because the specialist has already been approved.
2. The same status date and included scope for both forecasts.
3. A revised baseline matching whichever forecast the sponsor prefers.
4. Which forecast has more task-level detail, regardless of its staffing assumptions.
5. A single average of the two finish dates presented without either assumption set.
6. The staffing start date, availability and work assumptions used by each forecast.

Correct Answers: B, F

 

Correct Answers

Answer B is correct because differences in cutoff or scope can create apparent improvement unrelated to staffing. A comparable basis is needed before attributing the forecast change to the approved resource.

Answer F is correct because the different resource conditions may explain the finish difference. Explicit assumptions allow reviewers to judge whether the specialist can affect the controlling work at the time modeled.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because approval does not establish that all assumptions about availability, ramp-up and task impact are correct. The forecast still needs a comparable and reviewable basis.

Answer C is incorrect because forecast comparison does not itself authorize a baseline change. Replacing the comparison point would obscure variance rather than explain the resource scenario.

Answer D is incorrect because detail may help reviewers examine a model, but it cannot establish whether the specialist is available when the model assumes. The decisive comparison needs consistent scope and cutoff plus explicit resource conditions.

Answer E is incorrect because averaging scenarios with different conditions creates a date that may match neither feasible plan. It conceals the decision-relevant reason the forecasts differ.

 

Question 13

A release burnup chart shows completed scope rising from 80 to 100 items over two iterations, while total approved scope rises from 120 to 160 items. What is the best interpretation of the release gap?

20. Remaining scope fell by 20 because the completion line rose by 20.
21. Productivity doubled because approved scope increased by 40.
22. The original finish forecast remains valid because the completed line trends upward.
23. The team delivered no work because the release gap widened.
24. Completed work rose by 20; remaining scope rose from 40 to 60.

Correct Answer: E

 

Correct Answer

Answer E is correct because completion improved by 20 while total scope grew by 40. The gap is total minus complete, so it widened by 20 despite ongoing delivery.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because this ignores the simultaneous increase in total scope. Both burnup lines are needed to determine how much work remains.

Answer B is incorrect because approved scope measures work requested, not work completed. The data show 20 additional completed items and do not establish a doubling of delivery productivity.

Answer C is incorrect because an upward completion trend alone cannot offset added scope. The remaining gap and current delivery rate must inform a revised conditional forecast.

Answer D is incorrect because the completed count rose from 80 to 100. A larger remaining gap can result from scope growth even when the team is delivering.

 

Question 14

A burndown drops by 30 points in one day. The change log shows that 25 points were removed from the release and five points met the Definition of Done. What should the status report say?

1. No progress occurred because scope changed during the period.
2. Count the 25 removed points in velocity while excluding them from the remaining backlog.
3. The team’s future velocity should be set to 30 points per day.
4. Thirty points were delivered because all downward movement represents completion.
5. Five points were completed; the other 25 were removed from scope.

Correct Answer: E

 

Correct Answer

Answer E is correct because burndown movement can reflect scope changes as well as accomplishment. Separating the two explains the true delivery progress and prevents an artificial throughput claim.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because five points did meet the Definition of Done. A scope change does not erase valid completed work; the two effects should be reported separately.

Answer B is incorrect because removing scope changes the amount requested but does not deliver those items. Including them in velocity would inflate the observed completion rate used for later forecasts.

Answer C is incorrect because that extrapolates a mixed scope-and-completion event as delivery capacity. Only the actual completed work is relevant to an evidence-based throughput history.

Answer D is incorrect because the change log attributes most of the drop to scope removal. Treating that work as delivered would contradict the completion evidence.

 

Question 15

A cumulative flow diagram shows the testing band widening for three weeks while the completed-work line maintains the same slope. Development keeps starting more items. Which actions are supported? Choose TWO.

1. Conclude that a specific tester is underperforming based on the diagram alone.
2. Declare throughput improvement because more work has entered testing.
3. Use the testing-entry rate as the delivery rate while the testing queue grows.
4. Start more development work to keep every specialist fully occupied.
5. Limit new starts and help finish existing work under the team’s workflow policies.
6. Investigate testing capacity, blocked work and the reasons items wait in that stage.

Correct Answers: E, F

 

Correct Answers

Answer E is correct because continuing to feed an accumulating queue increases work in progress without observed throughput improvement. Focusing on completion addresses the imbalance while respecting the defined flow controls.

Answer F is correct because a widening band indicates accumulation within testing. Stage-level evidence can identify whether capacity, blocking or another flow problem explains the growing queue.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because the diagram identifies a flow pattern, not an individual cause. Capacity constraints, blocked dependencies and work mix need investigation before assigning responsibility.

Answer B is incorrect because throughput counts finished items per period. The completed line has the same slope, so higher testing inventory is not evidence of higher delivery output.

Answer C is incorrect because entry to testing is an intermediate transition rather than the workflow completion boundary. The growing queue and unchanged completed-work slope show why this substitution would overstate delivery throughput.

Answer D is incorrect because additional starts feed a stage already accumulating work. Local utilization does not demonstrate improved system flow and may lengthen waiting time.

 

Question 16

A team completed 18 small requests this week, but one important request has been in progress for 24 days. Its service-level expectation is 85% of comparable requests within ten days. Which measure most directly exposes the unresolved request’s current exposure?

1. The percentage of team members assigned to any work.
2. The number of new requests accepted into the backlog.
3. The cycle time of the fastest completed request.
4. Its work item age, compared with the service-level expectation.
5. The number of requests completed this week.

Correct Answer: D

 

Correct Answer

Answer D is correct because age measures elapsed time for a started but unfinished item. It highlights that this request already exceeds the historical expectation, even while aggregate weekly throughput looks healthy.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because utilization shows allocation, not the waiting or blockage affecting this item. A fully occupied team can still have an aging request that needs attention.

Answer B is incorrect because new demand may influence future load, but it does not directly measure how long this started request has remained unfinished.

Answer C is incorrect because a favorable completed-item extreme does not describe the currently aging request. Its own elapsed unfinished time is the relevant signal.

Answer E is incorrect because throughput summarizes finished work and can hide an old unfinished item. Eighteen completions do not explain or resolve this request’s 24-day age.

 

Question 17

The team’s historical service-level expectation states that 85% of comparable items finish within eight elapsed days from start. A stakeholder asks whether a new item is guaranteed within eight days. What is the correct response?

1. Add a standard 20% to eight days and present that duration as guaranteed.
2. Eight days is a probabilistic expectation, conditional on comparable work.
3. Promise eight days because an 85% historical result is sufficiently high to guarantee delivery.
4. Every item will finish within eight days if the team labels it standard work.
5. The average cycle time must be exactly eight days.

Correct Answer: B

 

Correct Answer

Answer B is correct because the statement leaves about 15% of the historical distribution beyond eight days. Its usefulness depends on comparable conditions and does not establish certainty for an individual request.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because the given percentile does not establish the rest of the duration distribution. An arbitrary allowance neither determines a new confidence level nor proves that all comparable items will finish within it.

Answer C is incorrect because the remaining 15% is still material evidence of longer durations. A confidence level may support a conditional planning choice, but it cannot turn a probabilistic service expectation into certainty.

Answer D is incorrect because classification alone cannot eliminate variation. The stated expectation explicitly covers 85%, not all items, even within the comparable population.

Answer E is incorrect because a percentile threshold and an arithmetic mean are different summaries. The 85% statement does not provide the mean of the duration distribution.

 

Question 18

A stable workflow averages 18 items in progress and finishes three items per working day. For this long-run analysis, arrivals and departures are balanced and the same workflow boundaries are used. Applying average cycle time = average WIP / average throughput, what result follows?

1. One sixth of a working day because throughput is divided by WIP.
2. Exactly six days for every future item because the workflow is stable.
3. Three working days because throughput equals the number of days per item.
4. Six working days on average, not a guarantee for each item.
5. 54 working days because WIP is multiplied by throughput.

Correct Answer: D

 

Correct Answer

Answer D is correct because 18 items divided by 3 items per working day gives 6 working days. The stated steady conditions support the long-run average relation, while individual items can take different times.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because that reverses the stated relationship and produces a rate rather than elapsed duration. The requested average time is WIP divided by throughput.

Answer B is incorrect because a stable long-run average does not make all durations identical. The relationship supports an average, not a deterministic promise for every new item.

Answer C is incorrect because throughput is three items per day, not three days per item. The current average inventory also matters when estimating time through the workflow.

Answer E is incorrect because multiplication produces the wrong units and operation. Dividing item inventory by items completed per day gives the required time measure.

 

Question 19

A milestone trend report retains the original 1 July target. Forecasts made at the ends of March, April and May are 1 July, 15 July and 29 July. Scope and reporting conventions are unchanged. Which interpretation is most useful?

1. The project has already incurred 28 days of actual lateness in May.
2. The milestone is stable because each monthly report contains only one forecast date.
3. The trend proves that the same two-week delay will recur every month.
4. The baseline should move to 29 July automatically because the latest date is most current.
5. The milestone forecast is deteriorating by about two weeks at each successive update.

Correct Answer: E

 

Correct Answer

Answer E is correct because the sequence shows progressively later forecasts against the same target. That pattern warrants investigation of remaining work and forecast assumptions, even before the milestone is actually missed.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because the milestone has not yet reached its July target. The report shows forecast slippage, which is a warning about expected performance rather than an actual completion variance.

Answer B is incorrect because stability is assessed across reporting dates, not by counting entries within a report. The retained history shows repeated movement to later completion.

Answer C is incorrect because the observed pattern justifies concern but does not establish an inevitable future increment. Causes and remaining-work evidence are needed before extending it mechanically.

Answer D is incorrect because the latest forecast and approved target serve different purposes. A changing expectation does not automatically authorize replacing the baseline.

 

Question 20

A release dashboard records escaped defects after deployment and the percentage of high-risk interfaces that have passed integration testing before deployment. Which statements correctly interpret these indicators? Choose TWO.

1. The two measures are interchangeable because both are percentages in the dashboard.
2. Escaped defects are a lagging quality result for the release already deployed.
3. High-risk interface test coverage is a leading readiness indicator, with limits.
4. Passing every planned interface test guarantees that all product behavior is correct.
5. Escaped defects are a leading indicator because they may influence the next release.
6. Use pre-release test coverage alone as the quality outcome once deployment starts.

Correct Answers: B, C

 

Correct Answers

Answer B is correct because they describe failures discovered after the delivery event. They can inform future improvement but cannot by themselves provide advance evidence for that completed release.

Answer C is correct because pre-release coverage gives advance evidence about a known source of integration exposure. Passing coverage supports readiness assessment but cannot guarantee that no defects will escape.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because their timing and meaning differ. Common units or formatting do not make an outcome measure equivalent to advance evidence about readiness.

Answer D is incorrect because tests cover specified conditions and may miss defects or untested interactions. A useful leading indicator should not be described as proof of universal correctness.

Answer E is incorrect because an observed outcome can guide later decisions without changing its nature for the measured release. It remains a lagging result of that deployment.

Answer F is incorrect because coverage records readiness evidence from before release. Escaped defects supply a different, observed outcome afterward; favorable coverage does not show whether actual users encounter failures.

 

Question 21

A project reports 90% of its activities complete, but the ten unfinished activities include all commissioning and operational acceptance. The activity count gives equal weight to a one-hour review and a ten-day test. What should be done before concluding that delivery is nearly complete?

1. Keep equal task weighting because all activities belong to the approved plan.
2. Apply the mean duration of the completed activities to the ten unfinished activities.
3. Forecast completion after 10% more calendar time because 10% of activities remain.
4. Replace the activity percentage with the percentage of budget already spent.
5. Assess remaining effort, dependency significance and objective completion criteria.

Correct Answer: E

 

Correct Answer

Answer E is correct because an unweighted activity count can be dominated by many small tasks. The unfinished commissioning and acceptance work may control completion and require substantial effort despite the favorable count.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because approval establishes authorized scope, not equal duration, effort or delivery significance. The stated one-hour and ten-day activities cannot support a near-completion conclusion merely by receiving equal count weight.

Answer B is incorrect because the completed set can be dominated by short reviews, while the remaining work includes lengthy commissioning and acceptance. A mean from that different work mix is not a defensible substitute for estimating the remainder.

Answer C is incorrect because equal activity counts do not imply equal duration or effort. The explicitly different task sizes and remaining dependency significance invalidate that conversion.

Answer D is incorrect because expenditure measures input consumption rather than completed commissioning or accepted operations. It may provide cost context, but it does not establish the remaining work or delivery readiness.

 

Question 22

A Scrum Team reports 40 points completed in a Sprint, including ten points whose items failed mandatory tests in the Definition of Done. The remaining release forecast used the 40-point figure. Which corrections are needed? Choose TWO.

1. Reconsider the remaining-work forecast with the unfinished items still visible.
2. Record 30 points as completed under the Definition of Done.
3. Apply half credit to the failed items and report 35 completed points.
4. Average the reported 40 with previous Sprints so this period has less influence.
5. Keep 40 as the forecasting velocity while carrying the failed ten points in the backlog.
6. Retain 40 because points measure implementation effort rather than completion.

Correct Answers: A, B

 

Correct Answers

Answer A is correct because the failed items still require work and the overstated completion rate affected the forecast. Correcting both accomplishment and remainder preserves a consistent forecasting basis.

Answer B is correct because the ten failed points do not represent a usable Increment under the stated completion standard. The completed-work measure must reflect only items that meet that standard.

Incorrect Answers

Answer C is incorrect because partial implementation effort does not meet the stated Definition of Done. Introducing partial completion credit would change the measure being reported rather than correct the original classification.

Answer D is incorrect because smoothing an erroneous observation does not make its ten unfinished points completed. The current observation must first be corrected before any appropriate historical forecasting method is applied.

Answer E is incorrect because retaining the items fixes their visibility but leaves the completion history inflated. The forecast needs both a valid accomplished-work rate and an accurate remainder, rather than only one correction.

Answer F is incorrect because the report claims completed points. Effort spent on unfinished work may be discussed, but it does not satisfy the Definition of Done or justify counting the items as completed.

 

Question 23

A program’s agreed status rule is red if any mandatory acceptance condition is forecast to fail; green requires all such conditions to be achievable. Cost is favorable, the delivery date is unchanged, but a required load test is forecast to miss its threshold. Which two reporting actions follow the rule? Choose TWO.

1. Report amber because no actual acceptance test has failed yet.
2. Report overall red while identifying the load-test condition that drives the rating.
3. Report green because two favorable dimensions outweigh one unfavorable dimension.
4. Retain the favorable cost and date facts in the detailed status.
5. Keep overall green and show load testing as amber until the actual test is run.
6. Report overall red but omit favorable cost and date details until the test issue is resolved.

Correct Answers: B, D

 

Correct Answers

Answer B is correct because the rule uses a mandatory-condition trigger, not a majority vote across dimensions. The forecast test failure therefore determines the overall status and should be explained explicitly.

Answer D is correct because overall red does not make every performance dimension unfavorable. Showing the separate facts helps decision makers understand the actual problem and avoid unrelated corrective action.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because the trigger explicitly includes forecast failure. Waiting for an actual result would disregard the early-warning rule agreed for this project.

Answer C is incorrect because the agreed rule is not a weighted average. A forecast failure of any mandatory acceptance condition is sufficient for red.

Answer E is incorrect because the agreed rule is triggered by a forecast failure, not only a completed failed test. A local amber annotation does not justify an overall green rating when a mandatory condition is forecast to fail.

Answer F is incorrect because the overall trigger does not make the other dimensions irrelevant. Retaining accurate favorable facts helps reviewers target the load-test problem and understand the available cost and schedule conditions for a response.

 

Question 24

A project rewards teams for the number of tickets closed. Teams begin splitting easy work into many tickets and leaving complex integration tickets open. Delivery milestones deteriorate while the closure count rises. What measurement change best addresses the observed distortion?

1. Measure meaningful deliverable completion and flow alongside milestone progress.
2. Rank teams by closure count without controlling how they split work into tickets.
3. Keep the count because numeric measures are inherently objective.
4. Raise the ticket-closure target so teams have a stronger incentive.
5. Measure only time spent on complex tickets and ignore completion evidence.

Correct Answer: A

 

Correct Answer

Answer A is correct because the count is being improved through ticket structure rather than actual delivery. Stable definitions and measures connected to integrated outcomes reduce the incentive to optimize an easily manipulated proxy.

Incorrect Answers

Answer B is incorrect because the observed distortion comes from the counting unit being easy to subdivide. Comparing teams on the same unnormalized count would preserve the incentive to close many small tickets while integration remains unfinished.

Answer C is incorrect because a number can be collected accurately yet measure the wrong behavior. The scenario shows a disconnect between ticket closure and the delivery progress the project needs.

Answer D is incorrect because the current incentive already favors easy fragmented work. Increasing the same target can amplify the behavior that leaves critical integration unfinished.

Answer E is incorrect because effort can help explain difficult work, but hours alone do not prove completion. The revised system needs meaningful delivery evidence rather than another activity-only proxy.

 

Question 25

Two work packages have the same status cutoff. Package A has EV 90 and AC 100; package B has EV 20 and AC 10. A report averages their CPIs of 0.90 and 2.00 to show project CPI 1.45 and proposes closing the cost-performance investigation. Which correction and management interpretation are supported?

1. Combined CPI is 1.00; A still has an unfavorable cost variance that needs separate analysis.
2. Combined CPI is 1.00, so both packages have met their individual cost objectives.
3. Use B’s CPI of 2.00 as the current project result because it shows the best available method.
4. Combined CPI is 1.45; the two package ratios justify closing the cost investigation.
5. Use A’s CPI of 0.90 for the whole project and omit B from the aggregate.

Correct Answer: A

 

Correct Answer

Answer A is correct because total EV and AC both equal 110, so combined CPI is 1.00. However, A has CV = 90 – 100 = -10 and B has CV = 20 – 10 = +10. Offsetting results do not establish that A’s adverse condition has been resolved; the report should preserve that account-level exposure.

Incorrect Answers

Answer B is incorrect because the aggregate ratio is correct but the account-level conclusion is not. A’s ten-unit unfavorable variance is offset by B’s ten-unit favorable variance; a balanced total does not show that each package is on cost.

Answer C is incorrect because best observed performance may inform investigation, but it is not the realized project ratio. Both packages contribute to current accomplishment and cost.

Answer D is incorrect because equal averaging ignores the different AC denominators. The ten-unit package receives the same influence as the hundred-unit package and materially overstates total efficiency.

Answer E is incorrect because the largest package has greater influence but is not the entire project. Package B’s earned value and cost must also be included in the aggregate totals.

 

Question 26

A recovery forecast promises to regain three weeks through test automation. The automation is not yet deployed, and its assumed throughput comes from a small demonstration. Which evidence should reviewers request before treating the recovery as a credible expected outcome? Choose TWO.

1. An assumption that the manual method can recover the same time if automation is late.
2. The fastest single demonstration run as the sole production estimate.
3. Representative throughput and reliability evidence for the work the forecast assumes it will process.
4. The approved automation budget as proof that the throughput improvement will occur.
5. A supplier assurance that automation will be available, without committed deployment or integration dates.
6. A feasible deployment and integration plan showing when automation can affect controlling work.

Correct Answers: C, F

 

Correct Answers

Answer C is correct because a small demonstration may omit production volume, exceptions or failure handling. Comparable evidence tests whether the assumed recovery rate can be sustained on the actual remainder.

Answer F is correct because a benefit cannot improve the forecast before the enabling tool is available and usable. Its timing must connect to the remaining work that actually determines completion.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because an unvalidated fallback is another conditional claim rather than evidence for the promised recovery. Its capacity, timing and achievable throughput would also need support before it could protect the forecast.

Answer B is incorrect because a best-case run is not representative evidence of sustained performance. The forecast must account for the actual work mix and relevant operational conditions.

Answer D is incorrect because budget approval authorizes resources but does not demonstrate tool readiness or representative performance. The forecast needs operational evidence connecting that investment to timely recovery.

Answer E is incorrect because general confidence does not establish when the tool can affect controlling tests. The forecast needs a feasible sequence and availability dates tied to the remaining network.

 

Question 27

A project receives raw actual-finish dates and accepted-unit counts from workstream leads. The steering committee needs a useful status assessment. Which three steps turn the observations into decision-ready performance information? Choose THREE.

1. Populate missing actual-finish fields with forecast dates until teams confirm completion.
2. Present the resulting forecast, its assumptions and the specific decision required.
3. Forward all raw rows without checking whether the workstreams use the same cutoff.
4. Validate the observations against agreed definitions and one reporting cutoff.
5. Average workstream completion percentages despite different earning rules.
6. Compare the observations with the approved plan and analyze material deviations.

Correct Answers: B, D, F

 

Correct Answers

Answer B is correct because decision makers need the consequences for remaining work and any action beyond current authority. A forecast and clear request make the analyzed evidence usable for governance.

Answer D is correct because consistent definitions and timing establish what the data mean. Without that foundation, differences may reflect inconsistent recording rather than real performance.

Answer F is correct because comparison creates context for actual dates and counts. Investigating meaningful differences turns isolated observations into an explanation of performance.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because forecast dates describe expected events, whereas actual dates assert that events occurred. Mixing them would corrupt the completion evidence; missing actuals need validation or explicit reporting as unknown.

Answer C is incorrect because unreconciled data can create an apparently precise but inconsistent picture. The committee would still lack a trustworthy comparison and analysis.

Answer E is incorrect because a percentage can hide different denominators and completion definitions. Those measures need a valid common basis and appropriate weighting before aggregation can support a project-level status conclusion.

 

Question 28

An automated status report counts 120 completed items. The acceptance register contains 40 unique accepted item IDs. Investigation shows that joining the register to test evidence created several rows per item, with different numbers of test records for different items. Which corrections are needed? Choose TWO.

1. Remove exact duplicate rows while retaining all distinct test rows in the item count.
2. Treat each test-evidence row as a separate completed deliverable.
3. Reconcile the reported item set to the acceptance register and retain traceable evidence.
4. Divide every future reported count by three to correct the current ratio.
5. Count each accepted item once using its stable item ID.
6. Keep the row count because every test record has a unique test ID.

Correct Answers: C, E

 

Correct Answers

Answer C is correct because the register establishes which items actually meet the completion boundary. Reconciliation checks both missing and extra items, while traceability preserves the tests without treating them as additional deliveries.

Answer E is correct because the join expanded one delivery into several evidence rows. Throughput counts completed work items, so aggregation must preserve one contribution per unique accepted item rather than count test records.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because the multiple test records are distinct rows, so exact-row deduplication leaves several contributions for each accepted item. The aggregation must use the stable work-item ID as its counting unit.

Answer B is incorrect because a test record supports an item’s acceptance but does not create another work item. Counting evidence rows would preserve the join error and overstate throughput.

Answer D is incorrect because the number of test records differs across items. The present 120-to-40 ratio is not a stable correction factor, so dividing future counts by three can create new errors.

Answer F is incorrect because unique evidence IDs establish distinct tests, not distinct delivered items. The report promises an item count and must preserve the acceptance register’s item-level identity.

 

Question 29

After a new test harness is introduced, a project sees fewer blocked days in one weekly report. The next release uses a different work mix, and the manager wants to declare the schedule problem solved. What evidence would best support that conclusion?

1. A before-and-after average that ignores the changed release work mix.
2. The lowest blocked-day count from any week in the project.
3. The purchase and installation records for the test harness.
4. Sustained comparable results showing reduced blocking and an improved remaining-work forecast.
5. A team confidence poll about the harness after its first week.

Correct Answer: D

 

Correct Answer

Answer D is correct because one week and a changed work mix cannot establish durable improvement. Repeated comparable evidence, connected to the schedule consequence, tests whether the intervention has resolved the relevant performance problem.

Incorrect Answers

Answer A is incorrect because the difference could reflect easier or different work rather than the harness. Controlling relevant comparability and checking sustained outcomes is necessary before attributing the improvement to the intervention.

Answer B is incorrect because selecting an isolated best result ignores variation and changing conditions. The conclusion requires sustained, relevant evidence rather than the most favorable observation.

Answer C is incorrect because those records establish that the intervention was implemented. They do not demonstrate that it consistently reduces blocking or improves the expected completion date.

Answer E is incorrect because perceptions can help identify concerns, but they do not demonstrate sustained reduction in blocking. Comparable observed results and their effect on the remaining forecast are needed for the claimed resolution.

 

Question 30

A project’s governance rule requires a recovery decision when the current forecast exceeds a contractual milestone by more than five working days. The latest validated forecast is eight working days late, although current SPI is 0.98. What should the manager do?

1. Trigger the recovery decision with the validated forecast and feasible options.
2. Wait until the milestone is actually missed by eight days.
3. Seek a generic SPI-based warning rule before raising the current recovery decision.
4. Report green because SPI is within 2% of one.
5. Wait until SPI falls below 0.90 because that is a common warning level.

Correct Answer: A

 

Correct Answer

Answer A is correct because the explicit threshold is forecast lateness in working days, and eight exceeds five. A near-one value-based SPI does not override the governance rule or the schedule evidence used by it.

Incorrect Answers

Answer B is incorrect because the rule is designed to act on a forecast, allowing time for recovery. Deferring until actual lateness would ignore that early decision point.

Answer C is incorrect because the project already has an applicable forecast-based rule and a validated breach. Proposing a future policy revision does not suspend the present requirement to address the eight-day exposure.

Answer D is incorrect because the ratio measures budgeted-work accomplishment and does not express the contractual date variance. The validated eight-day exposure breaches the explicit rule.

Answer E is incorrect because the project has stated its own trigger, and no 0.90 rule is given. Substituting a generic index threshold would bypass the applicable forecast-based decision requirement.